Iymus
Active Member
you stated the Jews interpretation was "Christ said I and my Father are one; in the same"
According to surrounding verses in John Chapter 10 ; YES
biblehub.com/john/10-33.htm
Joh 10:33 The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God.
when in fact it was actually Christ.
Are you saying the correct factually interpretation of the Jews is; he said "I and my Father are Christ" or, he said "I and my Father are one Christ.?
You also stated "...if the Jews interpretation was correct in regards to Christ's words..." (which in fact are "I and the Father are one" John 10:30) "...then he deserved to be stoned according to the law."
CORRECT; If they were correct, but it was not correct because he was saying "He and is Father is one in agreement?
Why do I know this?
1. Did not refer to Father as himself and referred to his Father being greater than all which would include him.
Joh 10:29 My Father, which gave them me, is greater than all; and no man is able to pluck them out of my Father's hand.
2. Said he is the Son of God our Father who sent him
Joh 10:36 Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?
You are subordinate to the one greater than you therefore One in Agreement.
If that's an error or a mistype on your part just let us know and we can move on.
Actually it probably should be the other way around.
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