Brian2
Veteran Member
Just a question for you -- all of us -- to think about: if the Bible and it's writers really wanted to show Jesus was God, co-equal with the Father - why doesn't it call him, God's 'brother'? That's more of an equal term. A son is always subordinate to a father, in their relationship.
Because Jesus is the Son and not the brother. It is a matter of fact, not a relationship invented to transmit a message.
The co equal actually means having the same nature. The Son has the same nature as His Father. But the Son who is perfect just as His Father is perfect, is subordinate to His Father.
Why did Jesus have a god which was also Martha's God, known in Hebrew as Yahweh? (John 20:17) Who did Jesus call his "brothers", actually?
In John 20:17 Jesus does not say "....to our God". He says "to your God and to my God". A subtle distinction.
Jesus Father is also His God because He was and is a man. He took the nature of a servant (Phil 2) and so now has a God. Jesus was and is a man and so other men are His brothers. Jesus human nature is real and not transient.
After Jesus' death....In their prayer at Acts of the Apostles 4, they addressed God as "Sovereign Lord"; were the Christians praying to Jesus? Read it, and you'll find out: No. They actually referred to Jesus as "Your (God's) Holy Servant."
The Word took the nature of a servant. He is the Holy One of Israel, the Holy Servant who was an Israelite. Actually He is our only Lord. That does not mean that the Father is not our Lord and the Father being our only God does not mean that the Son is not God. As Thomas said to Jesus, "My Lord and My God".
The Son who comes from His Father has the same nature as His Father, God nature.
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