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The Trinity: Was Athanasius Scripturally Right?

Hockeycowboy

Witness for Jehovah
Premium Member
I don't understand. What is the difference between the Athanasian Creed and being outvoted at the Council of Nicea. And what does RCC stand for?
RCC is Roman Catholic Church.

Excuse my passion for this. But think about the 1st of the 10 Commandments . It’s first, because it’s pretty important. It is that worshippers of the Abrahamic God, Yahweh (Jehovah in English), need to put His worship, above worship of any other.

But, unfortunately, the Trinity doesn’t do that; it “spreads that worship around”. IMO.

I can just imagine the kick the Devil gets from that! 1 John 5:19 & Revelation 12:9 are more apropos than most realize!

Take care, my cousin.
 

sojourner

Annoyingly Progressive Since 2006
Two points that I would like to address.....



If you consult the Tanakh at Exodus 3:14-15 you will see that God’s name never was...... “I Am”.

13 And Moses said to God, "Behold I come to the children of Israel, and I say to them, 'The God of your fathers has sent me to you,' and they say to me, 'What is His name?' what shall I say to them?"
יגוַיֹּ֨אמֶר משֶׁ֜ה אֶל־הָֽאֱלֹהִ֗ים הִנֵּ֨ה אָֽנֹכִ֣י בָא֘ אֶל־בְּנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵל֒ וְאָֽמַרְתִּ֣י לָהֶ֔ם אֱלֹהֵ֥י אֲבֽוֹתֵיכֶ֖ם שְׁלָחַ֣נִי אֲלֵיכֶ֑ם וְאָֽמְרוּ־לִ֣י מַה־שְּׁמ֔וֹ מָ֥ה אֹמַ֖ר אֲלֵהֶֽם:

14 God said to Moses, "Ehyeh asher ehyeh (I will be what I will be)," and He said, "So shall you say to the children of Israel, 'Ehyeh (I will be) has sent me to you.'"
ידוַיֹּ֤אמֶר אֱלֹהִים֙ אֶל־משֶׁ֔ה אֶֽהְיֶ֖ה אֲשֶׁ֣ר אֶֽהְיֶ֑ה וַיֹּ֗אמֶר כֹּ֤ה תֹאמַר֙ לִבְנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵ֔ל אֶֽהְיֶ֖ה שְׁלָחַ֥נִי אֲלֵיכֶֽם:

15 And God said further to Moses, "So shall you say to the children of Israel, 'The Lord God of your forefathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, has sent me to you.' This is My name forever, and this is how I should be mentioned in every generation.
טווַיֹּ֩אמֶר֩ ע֨וֹד אֱלֹהִ֜ים אֶל־משֶׁ֗ה כֹּ֣ה תֹאמַר֘ אֶל־בְּנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵל֒ יְהֹוָ֞ה אֱלֹהֵ֣י אֲבֹֽתֵיכֶ֗ם אֱלֹהֵ֨י אַבְרָהָ֜ם אֱלֹהֵ֥י יִצְחָ֛ק וֵֽאלֹהֵ֥י יַֽעֲקֹ֖ב שְׁלָחַ֣נִי אֲלֵיכֶ֑ם זֶה־שְּׁמִ֣י לְעֹלָ֔ם וְזֶ֥ה זִכְרִ֖י לְדֹ֥ר דֹּֽר:


Shemot - Exodus - Chapter 3 (Parshah Shemot)

The "Lord God" is YHWH....Yahweh.....(Jehovah in English.)

It is translated in English to mean “I Will Be What I Will Be”, meaning that God will BE whatever he needs to be in order to fulfill his purpose. Therefore any connection to John 8:58 is a gross error in translation. Jesus said “I am” many, many times without ever indicating that he was God....that would have been blasphemy.
In fact he never once said he was God. He identified his Father as "the only true God" and himself as the one he "sent forth". (John 17:3; John 10:34-36) He identified himself only as “the son of God”....there is no “God the Son”....the church invented that term, to promote this blasphemous belief.



If you do some research on the Greek word “theos” you will see that the Greeks were polytheistic and had no way to identify any of their gods individually unless they used their names. The Jews had long ceased to utter the divine name, so in order to identify the (nameless) God of Israel they used the definite article "THE" (ho)....look at John 1:1 in an Interlinear....

"In en the beginning archē was eimi the ho Word logos, and kai the ho Word logos was eimi with pros · ho God theos, and kai the ho Word logos was eimi God theos."

The word "the" is clearly seen four times in this verse. It is used to identify "the Logos" and if you notice the word "theos" (which is translated "god") you will see "ho" used with the first mention of God, but missing in the second. This is speaking about "gods" which in Greek, "theos" meant a "mighty one"...used in the mention of any god......elsewhere in scripture, it is also used with reference to those with divine authority....and even of satan the devil at 2 Corinthians 4:3-4.

This is clearly an error in translation perpetuated over centuries to promote a blasphemous belief that Jesus never once corroborated.

Do your homework.....please.
Terrible exegesis.
 

SLPCCC

Active Member
Because Jesus just told He was over 1800 years old!

Grief!

I don't think it's reasonable to think that saying you are over 1800 years old back then would be blasphemy and enough to get you stoned and killed. People would think that you are just plumb crazy! Now back then, if you said you were God, that is blasphemy. That would get you stoned to death.

Again...if the Pharisees thought Jesus was telling them that he was God, then why didn’t they ever accuse him of that at his Sanhedrin trial?!!

There can be many many reasons. One reason can be that they had enough to use that accusation when Jesus answered the High Priest who said, "Art thou the Christ, the Son of the Blessed? And Jesus said, I am: and ye shall see the Son of man sitting on the right hand of power, and coming in the clouds of heaven. Then the high priest rent his clothes, and saith, What need we any further witnesses? Ye have heard the blasphemy. . ." They simply had enough to kill him.
 

Hockeycowboy

Witness for Jehovah
Premium Member
I don't think it's reasonable to think that saying you are over 1800 years old back then would be blasphemy and enough to get you stoned and killed. People would think that you are just plumb crazy! Now back then, if you said you were God, that is blasphemy. That would get you stoned to death.



There can be many many reasons. One reason can be that they had enough to use that accusation when Jesus answered the High Priest who said, "Art thou the Christ, the Son of the Blessed? And Jesus said, I am: and ye shall see the Son of man sitting on the right hand of power, and coming in the clouds of heaven. Then the high priest rent his clothes, and saith, What need we any further witnesses? Ye have heard the blasphemy. . ." They simply had enough to kill him.
Come on! Please! Lol.
They would’ve used that accusation, first.
What did Jesus just get through saying?
“Ye shall see the Son of man sitting on the right hand of power, and coming in the clouds of heaven.“
That was the blasphemy to them.

Don’t spin it...just put the context together.
 

SLPCCC

Active Member
Come on! Please! Lol.
They would’ve used that accusation, first.
What did Jesus just get through saying?
“Ye shall see the Son of man sitting on the right hand of power, and coming in the clouds of heaven.“
That was the blasphemy to them.

Don’t spin it...just put the context together.


Maybe they forgot to mention it. Or maybe they did mention it but it wasn't written down. Or maybe they had enough on him already. Or maybe when they heard him say the words "I am" it was a gotcha moment! You are guessing on an outcome that can have many possibilities. You can't know for sure; you can only speculate. There are many things that Jesus said and done that are not written down. We can only work with those things that are written down.
 
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SLPCCC

Active Member
Colossians 1:15-17 15The Son is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation. 16For in him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things have been created through him and for him. 17He is before all things, and in him all things hold together.

This scripture is saying that ALL things were created in Jesus. If this suggests obsolutely All things, then one can say that Jesus always existed eternally with God as His Word and was never created.
 

101G

Well-Known Member
GINOLJC, to all.
Good posts from all participants.

addressing the OP, why not reverse engineer the question before us, "Who is JESUS", and then examine him for ourselves piece by piece.

#1. establish what, or who we have, and then take it apart piece by piece.

#2. eliminate any parts that is not true.

#3. Establish each working part as true.

#4. then put is all back together from scratch

and when one do that, PROGRESSION, ONE STEP AT A TIME, then one will know for sure who the Lord Jesus, the Christ, really is. running around in circle, jumping from one subject matter to another is, (a). confusion, and (b). one loose track of the main picture. so a suggestion,

Step #1.
I believe that JESUS is God, who is "a" Spirit, that came/sent, who manifested in flesh as a "diversity" of his OWNSELF.. I base this on the scriptures themselves.
Scripture, Acts 2:32 "This Jesus hath God raised up, whereof we all are witnesses." here the apostle Peter clearly is a witness to this fact that "God" raised up that body of the Christ. this scripture is clear as DAY, no confusion here.

now this,

John 2:18 "Then answered the Jews and said unto him, What sign shewest thou unto us, seeing that thou doest these things?"
John 2:19 "Jesus answered and said unto them, Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up."
John 2:20 "Then said the Jews, Forty and six years was this temple in building, and wilt thou rear it up in three days?"
John 2:21 "But he spake of the temple of his body."

now for some, not all, this is a dilemma. because either Jesus is God, or the bible, with the Lord Jesus statement, "that he raised up his body", either straight out lied, God forbid. but we know the Lord Jesus don't lie. and with the apostle Peter being a witness to God raising up Jesus with the Holy Ghost in him, the Holy Ghost don't lie either. so there are only two question before us, "is Jesus, God, the same one person, or is Jesus the Son of God a separate person. well the second question has no merit, as Jesus being a SEPERATE person. so then the question come before us all is this, "How can Jesus be God, and the Son of God at the same time, meaning the same person.

this is #1. establish what, or who we have. is Jesus God and, or the Son of God at the same time, meaning the same one person? for if we say Jesus i8s the Son of God, and is a seperate person as God, then both the Lord Jesus, and the Holy Ghost in Peter lied, God forbid. if we go that route we might as well pack our bags and go home. or, find out how the Lord Jesus is God and the Son of God at the same time, being the same Person. this is #1. establish as to what we have,

now is the time to break down the piece and examine each part.......... is Jesus God and the Son of God at the same time? if so... HOW.

me personally, I believe that Jesus is God and the Son of God at the same time, which the scriptures themselves prove without a shadow of a doubt, who is the same person. I base this on the word I used earlier, "diversity". which is the Greek word, G1085 γένος genos (ǰe'-nos) n. which means, "Offspring",
kin.
{abstract or concrete, literal or figurative, individual or collective}
[from G1096]
KJV: born, country(-man), diversity, generation, kind(-red), nation, offspring, stock
Root(s): G1096

there is the word, "diversity", which is another word for "offspring", (as the KJV can translate as), and this word offspring can be found in the scripture concerning Christ at, Revelation 22:16 "I Jesus have sent mine angel to testify unto you these things in the churches. I am the root and the offspring of David, and the bright and morning star."

my source for the definition is the Mickelson's Enhanced Strong's Dictionaries of the Greek and Hebrew Testaments.

now knowing these thing I can without a doubt understand how Jesus is God, (the Root), and the Son of God, (the Offspring), who is the SAME PERSON, at the same time. which John at 1:1 clearly establish, as well as all the other holy prophets and apostles as well.

I would like to hear other explanation from those who participate in following this topic, so that we can work on #1. establish what, or who we have

PICJAG.
 
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Deeje

Avid Bible Student
Premium Member
I believe politics does not change the truth. The scriptures support the concept of the Trinity.

The title ʼelo·himʹ appears 35 times by itself in the account of creation alone, and every time the verb describing what God said and did is singular. (Genesis 1:1–2:4) So ʼElo·himʹ as an intensive plural, denotes "greatness and majesty", not a plurality of individual persons in one Godhead.

ʼElo·himʹ means,“persons,” not “gods.” So those who argue that this word implies a Trinity make themselves polytheists, worshipers of more than one God. Why? Because it would mean that there were three gods in the Trinity. But nearly all Trinity supporters reject the view that the Trinity is made up of three separate gods. Yet they say....The Father is God, the Son is God and the Holy Spirit is God.....how is there not three gods?
 

YoursTrue

Faith-confidence in what we hope for (Hebrews 11)
Because Jesus just told He was over 1800 years old!

Grief!

Again...if the Pharisees thought Jesus was telling them that he was God, then why didn’t they ever accuse him of that at his Sanhedrin trial?!!
Thanks. You're making it clear that the religious leaders were jealous of Jesus because he had power to perform miracles. And he had followers.
 

Hockeycowboy

Witness for Jehovah
Premium Member
Thanks. You're making it clear that the religious leaders were jealous of Jesus because he had power to perform miracles. And he had followers.
Yeah, no doubt!

Similar to Korah, Dathan and Abiram.....jealous of the power God gave to Moses!
 

YoursTrue

Faith-confidence in what we hope for (Hebrews 11)
I see that different translations have different renderings of Exodus. The Septuagint, a Greek translation of the Hebrew Old Testament quotes Exodus 3:14 as “The I Am”. Many of the Jews had used the Septuagint during the first century. So, the question is whether Jesus was quoting from the Septuagint or not.


The Watchtower Bible and Tract Society’s Greek The interlinear word for word admittingly translates John 8:58 as:

λέγω (I am saying) ὑμῖν, (to YOU) πρὶν (Before) ᾿Αβραὰμ (Abraham) γενέσθαι (to become) ἐγὼ (I) εἰμί. (am.) 59

And most Bibles translate the Hebrew from Exodus 3:14 as "I am"--the present tense as did the Hebrew translators of the LXX and the Watchtower has above.

I also reason, If Jesus were really saying to the Jews, “I Will Be What I Will Be” then why would the Pharisees want to kill him (v. 59)? Blasphemy or calling yourself God was punishable by death. Maybe equating yourself with God as the argument goes with Jesus saying "I am," shows that the Jews understood what he was saying?

The question can remain as to whether Jesus was quoting from the Septuagint or the Hebrew. Wading through the arguments dealing with Greek tenses, verb forms, and grammar rules is unnecessary if other arguments can support this one.

Professor Bart Ehrman of Religious Studies at The University of North Carolina at Chapel Hill. with degrees from Wheaton College (B.A.) and Princeton Theological Seminary states, “Jesus in the Gospel of John 8:58 makes a series of stunning declarations about himself, in which he indicates that he existed in eternity past in the glory of God and that he himself is equal with God.” Like the nontrinitarians, Professor Ehrman does not believe that Jesus was God. But he admits that when Jesus said, "I Am" He was saying that he was God and that is what got the Pharisees very upset and eventually caused Jesus' death.

In Mark 14:62, where Jesus answered the High Priest who said, "Art thou the Christ, the Son of the Blessed? And Jesus said, I am: and ye shall see the Son of man sitting on the right hand of power, and coming in the clouds of heaven. Then the high priest rent his clothes, and saith, What need we any further witnesses? Ye have heard the blasphemy. . ." Jesus responded with "I am" which hit a nerve and provoked the authorities to seek Jesus' death. They must have been thinking of when Jesus said "I Am" at John 8: 58. This is particularly revealing when we compare John 10:34 where the Pharisees want to kill Jesus because they said He was making Himself equal to God. The phrase, "I AM" in these contexts implies that. Anthanasia may have been using these arguments.

Another Historian, David Brakke, Chair in the History of Christianity and a Professor of History at The Ohio State University. studied theology and received his MDiv from Harvard Divinity School and a PhD in Religious Studies from Yale University. He states, “The concept of creation through the Word is inspired by how God creates in Genesis—by speaking. In John, the Word has become not merely God’s speech, but a being in his own right—a being who both is God and is with God.”
Let's say that yhwh said "I am." Tell me what you think He meant by that. In context at Exodus 3:15 it certainly is interesting. So if you heard it at the time, what would you think the Almighty God meant by that? Scholars more or less agree on what God (not the trinity) meant there. But what do you think?
 

YoursTrue

Faith-confidence in what we hope for (Hebrews 11)
Because exegetical understanding and scholarship is not dependent upon belief.
Well, check out what Exodus 3:15 means when God told Moses He is. If you heard it, what would you think God meant by that?
 

Deeje

Avid Bible Student
Premium Member
If Jesus were really saying to the Jews, “I Will Be What I Will Be” then why would the Pharisees want to kill him (v. 59)? Blasphemy or calling yourself God was punishable by death. Maybe equating yourself with God as the argument goes with Jesus saying "I am," shows that the Jews understood what he was saying?

You are missing the point here....Jesus was using a phrase that he had used countless times in his teachings...."I am" (egō eimi) was used in all these instances, (John 6:35; John 11:25; John 14:6, 28; John 15:1,5) but in none of them was he claiming to be God.

In John 8:58 he told the Jews..."Abraham your father rejoiced greatly at the prospect of seeing my day, and he saw it and rejoiced.” 57 Then the Jews said to him: “You are not yet 50 years old, and still you have seen Abraham?58 Jesus said to them: “Most truly I say to you, before Abraham came into existence, I have been.59 So they picked up stones to throw at him, but Jesus hid and went out of the temple."

He was answering a question about his age, not the status of his deity.

He was not saying that he was God.

John 10:31-36...
"Once again the Jews picked up stones to stone him. 32 Jesus replied to them: “I displayed to you many fine works from the Father. For which of those works are you stoning me?” 33 The Jews answered him: “We are stoning you, not for a fine work, but for blasphemy; for you, although being a man, make yourself a god.” 34 Jesus answered them: “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I said: “You are gods”’? 35 If he called ‘gods’ those against whom the word of God came—and yet the scripture cannot be nullified— 36 do you say to me whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, ‘You blaspheme,’ because I said, ‘I am God’s Son’?"

Think about the situation he was in.....the Jews were accusing him of blasphemy (a capital offense) and seeking a way to put him to death....if Jesus had nothing to lose at this point because they were going to have him executed anyway, why would he not just come right out and say it? Look in the scriptures....he never once did.
 

SLPCCC

Active Member
Yeah, no doubt!

Similar to Korah, Dathan and Abiram.....jealous of the power God gave to Moses!

You guys are speculating!. You just agreed with me that we can only use what is written and the context. Where does it say that they killed Jesus because they were jealous of his powers?
 

SLPCCC

Active Member
You are missing the point here....Jesus was using a phrase that he had used countless times in his teachings...."I am" (egō eimi) was used in all these instances, (John 6:35; John 11:25; John 14:6, 28; John 15:1,5) but in none of them was he claiming to be God.


OK, you win. Anthanisia may have lost on the "I Am".
 
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