Is this logical? Why or why not?
No, it is illogical. I'll explain.
God not communicating directly to everyone is an observation, something known.
This is an unsportable assumption, and therefore all the logic that follows based upon it is unworthy of consideration. This is reason #1 why this is illogical.
How do you know God doesn't communicate directly with everyone, and that it really is more a matter of not everyone having ears to hear that communication? Think of it like rays of the sun which shines upon everyone equally, but those that never come outside will never feel it. It's there for them, regardless of their problems that deny themselves the sunlight.
However, it does not follow that, since it is observable that God does not communicate directly to everyone, that this means that if God existed God would not communicate directly to everyone.
Again, it is not observable that God doesn't communicate with them. On the contrary, it appears he does, and that only "those with ears to hear and eyes to see," is aware of what's there for everyone equally at all times. It's not God "not communicating". It's us, "not listening". Big difference.
Saying it's God not communicating, takes the responsibility off yourself for not hearing what is being revealed clearly. "It must be God, not me!", is weak, to say the least.
(Note: I did not write this.)
Who did, and why do you consider it worthy of consideration?