Should women remain silent in the churches? I hope it wouldn’t be a question taken too seriously these days. However St Paul in his first epistle to a church in Corinth appeared to advice just that.
Women should remain silent in the churches. They are not allowed to speak, but must be in submission, as the law says. If they want to inquire about something, they should ask their own husbands at home; for it is disgraceful for a woman to speak in the church
1 Corinthians 14:34-35
Should we take Paul’s words at face value or did he mean something else? What do the Christian scriptures teach about the equality of men and women? How did the early churches treat women? How much has changed and why?
GINOLJC, to all. addressing the OP only, 1 Corinthians 14:34 "Let your women keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them to speak; but they are commanded to be under obedience, as also saith the law.".
#1. the apostle was not addressing any woman, or women in the church, he was addressing
husbands who had wives that spoke without knowledge nor with the wisdom of God. while speaking in the church
#2. the term "woman" in verse 34 is a "wife", G1135 γυνή gune (ǰ ï-nee') n.
1. a woman.
2. (specially) a wife.
[probably from the base of G1096]
KJV: wife, woman
Root(s): G1096
notice definition #2, so how do we know that this is a "wife" spoken of in verse 34? answer, because when they were to get home they should learn from from their
HUSBANDS while at home. the only type of woman who have a "husband" is a married one. 1 Corinthians 14:35 "And if they will learn any thing,
let them ask their husbands at home: for it is a shame for women to speak in the church." THE SHAME IS A LACK OF KNOWLEDGE OF GOD'S HOLY WORD.
this is why the apostle said what he said in 1 Timothy 2:12 "But I suffer not
a woman to teach, nor to usurp
authority over the man, but to be in silence." why IN "Silence", so she may LEARN. here "MAN" in this verse is "husband" and the term "woman" is the same as in 1 Corinthians 14:34, wife. this is a home setting of educating one's wife in the word of God, how do we know this? because of verse 15. 1 Timothy 2:15 "Notwithstanding she shall be saved in
childbearing, if they continue in faith and charity and holiness with sobriety."
well, the only "MAN" and the only "WOMAN" who suppose to be having children are one's who are MARRIED .... (that's to each other... (smile). so we can clearly see, or kill two birds with one stone, that it is the husband responsibility, (AT HOME), who is first, as Adam was formed first, it is the one who have the responsibility to teach "HIS" own wife at home, the things of God before they, (him and her) come to the church with two different assessment of the same topic of scripture. that CONFUSION, and God is not the author of Confusion. that's why a deacon wife must be the same as her husband, on one accord.
so we can see clearly that the apostle was speaking to hubands of wives and not in general to all women in the church, for if the apostle would have used the term G2338 θήλυς thelus (thee'-lïs) adj.
female.
[from thele (the nipple)]
KJV: female, woman
then we all could pack up our bags and go home, for that would have included all and every woman in the church. but since he did not, (thank God), it was directed at wives who had "dumb" husband who haven't taught their wife anything concering the word of God, .... at home first. so these verses are directed at husband who have wives that speak and teach in the church. and so it's the "HUSBAND" responsibility to TEACH his wife the things of God and how to conduct herself in a church setting. for the husband and the wife are ONE, and they should say the "SAME" thing, else comes confusion which God is not of.
hoped this helped.
PICJAG.