The fact that certain truths were given once does not mean that they were always preserved. Besides, Revelation says, "And I saw another angel fly in the midst of heaven, having the everlasting gospel to preach unto them that dwell on the earth..." This event is being prophesied as apeing in the last days, so evidently Jude 1:3 canot be interpreted as you have done.
I didn’t want to enter this debate other than to make a single, specific point about an error in translation in a quotation Whirlingmerc offers. He quotes Jude 1:3 thusly :
contend earnestly for the faith delivered ONCE FOR ALL to the saints" It appears that Jude shut the door on 'future essential truths" whether Mormon or Bahai. or am I getting it wrong? (Whirlingmerc, post #25)
In this case Whirlingmerc has it wrong. Ironically, Whirlingmerc capitalizes the error. The text in the Greek refers to the holy faith that was “once delivered”. The verse does not say “ONCE FOR ALL” nor is there any significant Greek manuscript that says “ONCE FOR ALL”. It is an error in the translation he is using.
For Greek readers, the following is the NA-27 text of the verse :
Αγαπετοι πασαν σπουδην ποιουμενος γραφειν υμιν περι της κοινης σωτεριας αναγκην εσχον γραψαι υμιν παρακαλων επαγωνιζεσθαι τη απαζ παραδοθειση τοις αγιοις πιστει (the word "apax" = once is in blue - notice there is no adjective "for all" associated with it. In fact, greek readers will see that πασαν (“all”) only occurs once, and as the second word in this line, and it modifies the word for “diligence”, (not the word “απαζ” “once”).
Another point is, that though “απαζ”
can mean “once”, it is, without context NOT used as an exclusive term such that "for all" can be added without corrupting the meaning. Apax is used as well to indicate a special occasion in early Koine usage. For example, in P. Oxy VIII. 1102.8 (146 a.d.) it is used to describe a person “
having once entered on the inheritance”. (“
…επει απαζ προσηλθε τη κλεηρονομια”). This does not mean that the person will not recieve more (or another) inheritance, merely that the person has entered into a state of inheritance. In Vettius Valens, (p. 285.30) it is used to describe a change in state “in perpetuum”. Such usage changes the context of Judes' statement.
For example, Justin Martyr claimed (Dial. c Trypho) that the Prophetic Gifts had left the Jews and were given to the Christian Religion. He was describing that the Jews no longer had prophets and prophetic gifts, but such gifts were, at once, transferred to the Christian faith “in perpetuum”. The fact that the gospel and prophets and prophetic gifts (e.g. the spirit and revelation) were transferred to Christianity from the Jews (who had them in the past), did not mean that the Christians would keep the gospel nor it's gifts pure and unsullied any more than the Jews had done (as the Jewish Prophets had told Israel multiple times in the past, to repent and return to more pure religion during periods of Israels various apostasies).
Thus, I like Katzpurs historically correct point that though the gospel is given over to the Christians, with all of the accompanying Charismatic gifts of authentic religion, it does not mean that the Christian movement would not undergo schism and evolutions into competing movement having different competing claims, nor that it would not need repair and restoration and repentance from time to time.
In any case, Good luck in coming to your various conclusions.
Clear
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