I mean...they sound like two completely different language....so many differences as for phonology...how is that possible? I mean...only 3 centuries separate the English from the Pilgrim Fathers
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You mean Scandinavian languages...particularly.Mostly it seems because vowels in Germanic languages seem inherently unstable. .
Hehe. Then you have Canadian English which is a Hodge-podge of both. EH! I guess that is why the English and Americans like us as they can sort of understand almost everything we are saying.I mean...they sound like two completely different language....so many differences as for phonology...how is that possible? I mean...only 3 centuries separate the English from the Pilgrim Fathers
You mean Scandinavian languages...particularly.
German and Italian have the same vowels
btw my question was: what made English change so much once it crossed the ocean:..
And don't forget speakers of 'Strine!Hehe. Then you have Canadian English which is a Hodge-podge of both. EH! I guess that is why the English and Americans like us as they can sort of understand almost everything we are saying.
But if I go to Timmie's for a double double without loonies or toonies, that's a real kerfuffle, eh!Hehe. Then you have Canadian English which is a Hodge-podge of both. EH! I guess that is why the English and Americans like us as they can sort of understand almost everything we are saying.
They say the Virginian accent in particular (I don't know if there is a specific 'Virginian accent' though).It was British English that has changed. British English at the time of the American Revolution sounded more like us today.
Que? Je ne le comprandes pas.And don't forget speakers of 'Strine!
Why are British English and American English so different?
I mean...they sound like two completely different language....so many differences as for phonology...how is that possible? I mean...only 3 centuries separate the English from the Pilgrim Fathers.
Yes they do. All these languages' influences took place centuries before the founding of the US. The last one, the Norman, was around 450 years before.Basically, what you're dealing with in England is a mash-up of Anglo-Saxon, British (in this context, what would be known as Welsh these days), Normand, and Scandinavian language influences. Those variances do not really manifest in mid-17th century Protestants who came to America
The 'Southern' US accent is a relic of The Queen's English from centuries ago. The northern USA has experienced a lot more immigration and is changed by that. The West coast has had its influences. The entire country has experienced at least some immigration, and don't forget the American Indian influences. The British have also changed their speech somewhat and have several accents, besides. There has been a movement among English teachers to freeze the language and to standardize it, but it has failed. They have tried to teach Southerners not to use the word 'Aint' for instance. If I ever used 'Aint' on a paper I would lose points, but it was the teachers who were wrong about that not me. 'Aint' is a real English word and can be very useful. There's also nothing evil about the word 'Yall'. Its just that the English teachers are trying to control forces that they don't understand or can't accept.I mean...they sound like two completely different language....so many differences as for phonology...how is that possible? I mean...only 3 centuries separate the English from the Pilgrim Fathers
Willard Espy, Words at Play...Que? Je ne le comprandes pas.
I mean...they sound like two completely different language....so many differences as for phonology...how is that possible? I mean...only 3 centuries separate the English from the Pilgrim Fathers
Willard Espy, Words at Play...
speakers of Australian English..."et's stalk Strine, Mate; nah lemme tahk to Brine!"