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Who was it? And How was that being created?
Adam and Eve were not first. The angels were.
"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God" John 1:1
You can find a better opinion than the JW.
Perhaps pick up a used King James Version in a book store and read it yourself, like I did. It won't bite. And, lots of people will tell you that they know more than you, or called by God, or a Prophet of God. There is no one with authority between you and God, save Jesus the Christ.
Seriously? The King James Version? The KJV which translates the Hebrew re'em' (wild oxen) as unicorn? Psalms 22:21 / Psalms 29:6. Better rethink the JW opinion which will inform you of the errors of the worst translation of the Bible in the history of mankind.
I like the NIV. I do have a kjv and find it rather lacking for understandability. At least the NIV uses plain english.
I've been using King James 1960Who was it? And How was that being created?
Adam and Eve were not first. The angels were.
Another question, How was Lucifer born?
And then how about Satan?
I believe that jw's say that it was Jesus.
So what's your Bible of choice?Seriously? The King James Version? The KJV which translates the Hebrew re'em' (wild oxen) as unicorn? Psalms 22:21 / Psalms 29:6. Better rethink the JW opinion which will inform you of the errors of the worst translation of the Bible in the history of mankind.
So what's your Bible of choice?
I believe that jw's say that it was Jesus.
Seriously? The King James Version? The KJV which translates the Hebrew re'em' (wild oxen) as unicorn? Psalms 22:21 / Psalms 29:6. Better rethink the JW opinion which will inform you of the errors of the worst translation of the Bible in the history of mankind.
"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God" John 1:1
That's what I thought, but in any case you shouldn't be throwing stones. From a lengthy critique of the New World Translation by By Bruce M. Metzger (I'm sure you've heard of him and have heard JWs denounce him.)New World Translation, of course. You have to ask?
But if a sect’s basic orientation toward Jesus Christ be erroneous, it must be seriously doubted whether the name “Christian” can rightly be applied to such a system.
Of course I'm in no position to argue any of this, nor would I care to, but it does point up the fact that the NWT translators played fast and loose with its translations so as to better fit its theology that Jesus was not god.
Hello, @Ellen Brown, wish you well!
Just got through posting this, and thought you might find it food for thought:
**Highly acclaimed scholar and Roman Catholic priest John J. McKenzie, S.J. (a trinitarian), in his Dictionary of the Bible, says: “Jn 1:1 should rigorously be translated ‘the word was with the God [= the Father], and the word was a divine being.’”—(Brackets are his. Published with nihil obstat and imprimatur.) (New York, 1965), p. 317. (Italics and bold type are mine.)
Why does he say this?
Because of Koine Greek grammar regarding the usage of definite articles (or lack of) in sentence location.
In his article “Qualitative Anarthrous Predicate Nouns: Mark 15:39 and John 1:1,” Philip B. Harner said that such clauses as the one in John 1:1, “with an anarthrouspredicate preceding the verb, are primarily qualitative in meaning. They indicate that the logos has the nature of theos.” He suggests: “Perhaps the clause could be translated, ‘the Word had the same nature as God.’” (Journal of Biblical Literature, 1973, pp. 85, 87) Thus, in this text, the fact that the word the·osʹ in its second occurrence is without the definite article (ho) and is placed before the verb in the sentence in Greek is significant. Interestingly, translators that insist on rendering John 1:1, “The Word was God,” do not hesitate to use the indefinite article (a, an) in their rendering of other passages where a singular anarthrous predicate noun occurs before the verb. Thus at John 6:70, The Jerusalem Bible and King James both refer to Judas Iscariot as “a devil,” and at John 9:17 they describe Jesus as “a prophet.”
Other versions are in accord with this:
▪ 1808: "and the Word was a god" – Thomas Belsham The New Testament, in an Improved Version, Upon the Basis of Archbishop Newcome’s New Translation: With a Corrected Text, London.
▪ 1822: "and the Word was a god" – The New Testament in Greek and English (A. Kneeland, 1822.)
▪ 1829: "and the Word was a god" – The Monotessaron; or, The Gospel History According to the Four Evangelists (J. S. Thompson, 1829)
▪ 1863: "and the Word was a god" – A Literal Translation of the New Testament (Herman Heinfetter [Pseudonym of Frederick Parker], 1863)
▪ 1864: "and a god was the Word" – The Emphatic Diaglott by Benjamin Wilson, New York and London (left hand column interlinear reading)
▪ 1867: "In the beginning was the gospel preached through the Son. And the gospel was the word, and the word was with the Son, and the Son was with God, and the Son was of God" – The Joseph Smith Translation of the Bible
▪ 1879: "and the Word was a god" – Das Evangelium nach Johannes (J. Becker, 1979)
▪ 1885: "and the Word was a god" – Concise Commentary on The Holy Bible (R. Young, 1885)
▪ 1911: "and the Word was a god" – The Coptic Version of the N.T. (G. W. Horner, 1911)
▪ 1935: "and the Word was divine" – The Bible: An American Translation, by John M. P. Smith and Edgar J. Goodspeed, Chicago
▪ 1955: "so the Word was divine" – The Authentic New Testament, by Hugh J. Schonfield, Aberdeen.
▪ 1958: "and the Word was a god" – The New Testament of Our Lord and Saviour Jesus Anointed (J. L. Tomanec, 1958)
▪ 1966, 2001: "...and he was the same as God" – The Good News Bible
▪ 1970, 1989: "...and what God was, the Word was" – The Revised English Bible
▪ 1975 "and a god (or, of a divine kind) was the Word" – Das Evangelium nach Johnnes, by Siegfried Schulz, Göttingen, Germany
▪ 1975: "and the Word was a god" – Das Evangelium nach Johannes (S. Schulz, 1975);
▪ 1978: "and godlike sort was the Logos" – Das Evangelium nach Johannes, by Johannes Schneider, Berlin.
When you contemplate the context of the Apostle John's words...if Jesus was God, if that's what John meant....why would he imply Jesus was with God? (He should have just said "the Father".) And a few verses later, why would he write, "No man has ever seen God"? Was he wanting to be deliberately ambiguous?
Only a faulty interpretation, makes the context ambiguous.
A well-known encyclopedia once described the Trinity as "an inscrutable mystery". (Yet, supporters still try to describe it.)
If knowing and describing God really is "a mystery", why would Jesus say @ John 4:22-24 to Samaritan woman, "we worship what we know....the true worshippers will worship the Father" -- only, as the 1st Commandment (Exodus 20:1-5) requires.
Take care.