Psalms 82
Is actually God, talking to angels, sometimes called 'the gods of the nations'.
God is rebuking them, for not doing to their duties.
It isn't referring to men, at all.
Psalm 82 NASB....
"God takes His stand in His own congregation; He judges in the midst of the rulers. How long will you judge unjustly And show partiality to the wicked? Selah. Vindicate the weak and fatherless; Do justice to the afflicted and destitute. Rescue the weak and needy; Deliver them out of the hand of the wicked. They do not know nor do they understand; They walk about in darkness; All the foundations of the earth are shaken. I said, “You are gods, And all of you are sons of the Most High. “Nevertheless you will die like men And fall like any one of the princes.” Arise, O God, judge the earth! For it is You who possesses all the nations."
https://www.biblegateway.com/passage?search=Psalm 82:1-8&version=NASB
This is Asaph speaking about human judges in Israel....not angels. How do angels do justice to the afflicted and destitute? How do angels rescue the weak and needy, or vindicate the the weak and fatherless?
I'm sorry but you've got it all mixed up. The whole point of Jesus quoting Psalm 82 was to show that the word "god" does not only pertain to the true God but also to others...false gods...satan....human judges....and even to Jesus himself.
Totally incorrect, I generally never bring up the greek words for god
And perhaps if you had there would no longer be an argument over this word which you seem to think is a name. Unless you have studied these original language words and their meanings, I believe that you are grasping at straws to support your beliefs.
By the way, the Old Testament isn't in Greek. There, you learned something today.
The Hebrew word for "god" is "Elohim". Regarding the trinity, one thing is sure: the religious clergy who believe in that pagan doctrine do not know how to interpret the entirety of scripture.
The trinitarian clergy point out that the title
El·o·himʹ, as applied to the Creator, is in the plural number and literally means “Gods”. They claim that this is a proof of the teaching of a trinity in the Hebrew Scriptures, namely, that there are “three Persons” in one God. But their own argument backfires because, as they themselves point out,
El·o·himʹ means “Gods”, and not “Persons”. So, to follow through with their own argument, the title
El·o·himʹ would teach that there are two or more
Gods in one, instead of “three Persons in one God”. Thus the trinitarians would be guilty of arguing that there is a multiplicity of gods, contrary to their insistence that there are not three Gods, but only one God.
Right at the start in
Genesis 1:1 it knocks the ground from under the trinity champions by saying: “The form of the title
El·o·himʹ is plural, the plural of excellence or majesty and not to denote a multiple personality. The Greek
LXX [
Septuagint] renders
El·o·himʹ as
ho The·osʹ, showing that it means an individual ‘God’.
After the deluge of Noah’s day the pagans did the same by referring to their apostate gods also by the plural form of excellence,
elohim, god. (Note this as to the god Dagon at
Judges 16:23, 24; and the god Chemosh and the god Milcom at
1 Kings 11:33 and the god Baal-zebub at
2 Kings 1:2, 3, 16.)
In Noah’s history recording the days of Enoch, after idolatry had become practiced, the true worshipers frequently put a definite article
ha before
el or
elohim to indicate “the true God” Jehovah as distinct from the false gods who were also being referred to as
el or
elohim but not as
ha-el or
ha-elohim. (
Genesis 5:22; 2 Kings 1:6, 9)
(Information and excerpts taken from Watchtower Online Library.)
The name and word G'd, is contextual unto itself, and isn't greek language.
That is why the usage correlates to the entire Bible, not just the greek language part.
I sometimes wonder why I bother DoJ.....You just don't seem to get it....The term "god" is a concept. It is a different concept depending upon which "god" is being discussed and in what language and culture. To the Jews there was only one true God (Deuteronomy 6:4) He had a name which he revealed to Moses....YHWH, translated as either Yahweh or Jehovah in English. (Psalm 83:18 KJV)
The Greeks had a multiplicity of gods which were often licentious and violent with lusts and other distasteful attributes. They use the same word for all "gods" who suited that description in their culture. The only way to distinguish the unique God of the Jews was to use the definite article "the" as I have explained many times.
I want you to know that your arguments do not hold water and I am wondering where you get your beliefs? Do you have teachers who impart these ideas to you? Or have you arrived at them by some divine revelation given just to you? Only you can answer that. But please remember that God's people at no time were self taught.