Name of the Lord

[Deeje]

no where in those 2 verses does moses ask for a definition, or meaning. does god tells him he will explain the name. moses asks for a name. god gives it.

in exodus 3:15 god tells moses to say all of the following...................or further say

'The Lord God of your forefathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, has sent me to you.'

טווַיֹּ֩אמֶר֩ ע֨וֹד אֱלֹהִ֜ים אֶל־משֶׁ֗ה כֹּ֣ה תֹאמַר֘ אֶל־בְּנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵל֒ יְהֹוָ֞ה אֱלֹהֵ֣י אֲבֹֽתֵיכֶ֗ם אֱלֹהֵ֨י אַבְרָהָ֜ם אֱלֹהֵ֥י יִצְחָ֛ק וֵֽאלֹהֵ֥י יַֽעֲקֹ֖ב שְׁלָחַ֣נִי אֲלֵיכֶ֑ם זֶה־שְּׁמִ֣י לְעֹלָ֔ם וְזֶ֥ה זִכְרִ֖י לְדֹ֥ר דֹּֽר:


that isn't a name. that is information of his relationship to them and their ancestors and then he tells moses that this is the name for all generation.


my name forever is in exodus 3:14. prior to the israelites the egyptians knew it and the zoroastrians, hindus, all knew it. it was nothing new to the ancestors even if it was something new to the israelites

Oh I give up!

Where on earth are you getting information that leads you to believe that? It is right in front of your eyes.
"I Will Be" is Jehovah....it is the meaning of his name.

In the verse before (Exodus 3:13) it says...."And Moses said to God, "Behold I come to the children of Israel, and I say to them, 'The God of your fathers has sent me to you,' and they say to me, 'What is His name?' what shall I say to them?"

What do you imagine Moses was asking for? The Israelites knew Jehovah because they were of the family line of Abraham. Men knew God's name from the time of Adam.
"And to Seth also to him a son was born, and he named him Enosh; then it became common to call by the name of the Lord."
כווּלְשֵׁ֤ת גַּם־הוּא֙ יֻלַּד־בֵּ֔ן וַיִּקְרָ֥א אֶת־שְׁמ֖וֹ אֱנ֑וֹשׁ אָ֣ז הוּחַ֔ל לִקְרֹ֖א בְּשֵׁ֥ם יְהֹוָֽה: (Genesis 4:26)

Some scholars believe that this was a profane use of God's name at that time.

Regardless of the circumstances,.....the name of "The LORD" was Jehovah.....יְהֹוָֽה

But this was a new facet of his name as he released them from slavery in Egypt. He would "BE" what he needed to be to deliver them. Look at the power he displayed as their rescuer. The 10 plagues and the parting of the Red Sea....

The Hebrews had stayed separate from the Egyptians because the Pharaoh had put them to hard labor. They were a numerous people and useful to Pharaoh in his quest for building and construction. He had them making bricks and even stepped up production when Moses asked for their release. (Exodus ch5)

"And afterwards, Moses and Aaron came and said to Pharaoh, "So said the Lord God of Israel, 'Send out My people, and let them sacrifice to Me in the desert.' "
אוְאַחַ֗ר בָּ֚אוּ משֶׁ֣ה וְאַֽהֲרֹ֔ן וַיֹּֽאמְר֖וּ אֶל־פַּרְעֹ֑ה כֹּֽה־אָמַ֤ר יְהֹוָה֙ אֱלֹהֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵ֔ל שַׁלַּח֙ אֶת־עַמִּ֔י וְיָחֹ֥גּוּ לִ֖י בַּמִּדְבָּֽר:


2And Pharaoh said, "Who is the Lord that I should heed His voice to let Israel out? I do not know the Lord, neither will I let Israel out."
בוַיֹּ֣אמֶר פַּרְעֹ֔ה מִ֤י יְהֹוָה֙ אֲשֶׁ֣ר אֶשְׁמַ֣ע בְּקֹל֔וֹ לְשַׁלַּ֖ח אֶת־יִשְׂרָאֵ֑ל לֹ֤א יָדַ֨עְתִּי֙ אֶת־יְהֹוָ֔ה וְגַ֥ם אֶת־יִשְׂרָאֵ֖ל לֹ֥א אֲשַׁלֵּֽחַ" (Exodus 5:1-2)

I AM or I WILL BE is the name that identifies the one who is sent as a prophet to the people, not jehovah.

You can see from the Hebrew scriptures that "I Will Be" is the name of Jehovah....Israel's God.

 

[rosends]

so hebrew doesn't have a present continuous tense form?

If you think it does, show me.

in exodus 3:14 i will be is a future tense, while the other present continuous tense implies that it occurred in the past,

Wait, what? What "other"? What word are you talking about? The text in 3:14 has only one instance of a to be verb, Ehyeh (3 times). That's it.

future tense implies it is not yet occurred but will occur.

That is true. "I will eat" means I haven't eaten yet. "I will be" indicates that up to now, he hasn't been. If you have a problem with that, start with the grammar and work it through. Don't invent other stuff.

 

[rosends]

he said my name is ehyeh. ehyeh was to be used for those who were sent, not the word lord, jehovha.

Moses actually says "I-will-be sent ME (Moses) to you." So you see God's name as "I will be". Got it.

exodus 3:15 says god said further that you are to say the lord god of your fathers etc., etc., etc., the name is given in exodus 3:14 and referenced to again from exodus 3:15.

3:15 is the one in which God says the 4 letter name and says that ' "4-letter", the God of your fathers...is the one who sent me (Moses) to you' so God now has the "I will be" name and the 4 letter name, made synonymous but not identical, because in 3:15 he says "this is my name" after using the 4 letter name. So he gives 2 things in 2 verses, both labeled "my name." He gives 2 names.

 

[savagewind]

I think that realistically God is The I Am It means God exists for all time and is present wherever you may seek to find God. But, it isn't as easy as that. A person must first learn how to share in God's presence, therefore to the creation God is The I Will Be.

 

[Fool]

Oh I give up!

Where on earth are you getting information that leads you to believe that? It is right in front of your eyes.
"I Will Be" is Jehovah....it is the meaning of his name.

In the verse before (Exodus 3:13) it says...."And Moses said to God, "Behold I come to the children of Israel, and I say to them, 'The God of your fathers has sent me to you,' and they say to me, 'What is His name?' what shall I say to them?"

What do you imagine Moses was asking for? The Israelites knew Jehovah because they were of the family line of Abraham. Men knew God's name from the time of Adam.
"And to Seth also to him a son was born, and he named him Enosh; then it became common to call by the name of the Lord."
כווּלְשֵׁ֤ת גַּם־הוּא֙ יֻלַּד־בֵּ֔ן וַיִּקְרָ֥א אֶת־שְׁמ֖וֹ אֱנ֑וֹשׁ אָ֣ז הוּחַ֔ל לִקְרֹ֖א בְּשֵׁ֥ם יְהֹוָֽה: (Genesis 4:26)

Some scholars believe that this was a profane use of God's name at that time.

Regardless of the circumstances,.....the name of "The LORD" was Jehovah.....יְהֹוָֽה

But this was a new facet of his name as he released them from slavery in Egypt. He would "BE" what he needed to be to deliver them. Look at the power he displayed as their rescuer. The 10 plagues and the parting of the Red Sea....

The Hebrews had stayed separate from the Egyptians because the Pharaoh had put them to hard labor. They were a numerous people and useful to Pharaoh in his quest for building and construction. He had them making bricks and even stepped up production when Moses asked for their release. (Exodus ch5)

"And afterwards, Moses and Aaron came and said to Pharaoh, "So said the Lord God of Israel, 'Send out My people, and let them sacrifice to Me in the desert.' "
אוְאַחַ֗ר בָּ֚אוּ משֶׁ֣ה וְאַֽהֲרֹ֔ן וַיֹּֽאמְר֖וּ אֶל־פַּרְעֹ֑ה כֹּֽה־אָמַ֤ר יְהֹוָה֙ אֱלֹהֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵ֔ל שַׁלַּח֙ אֶת־עַמִּ֔י וְיָחֹ֥גּוּ לִ֖י בַּמִּדְבָּֽר:


2And Pharaoh said, "Who is the Lord that I should heed His voice to let Israel out? I do not know the Lord, neither will I let Israel out."
בוַיֹּ֣אמֶר פַּרְעֹ֔ה מִ֤י יְהֹוָה֙ אֲשֶׁ֣ר אֶשְׁמַ֣ע בְּקֹל֔וֹ לְשַׁלַּ֖ח אֶת־יִשְׂרָאֵ֑ל לֹ֤א יָדַ֨עְתִּי֙ אֶת־יְהֹוָ֔ה וְגַ֥ם אֶת־יִשְׂרָאֵ֖ל לֹ֥א אֲשַׁלֵּֽחַ" (Exodus 5:1-2)


You can see from the Hebrew scriptures that "I Will Be" is the name of Jehovah....Israel's God.

the chaldeans knew the name. ahea ashur ahea


i disagree with exodus 3:15 being the name. like everyone we are free to believe what we wish. the name is blatantly understood in exodus 3:14 imo

 

[Fool]

If you think it does, show me.

i asked you, if hebrew had a present continuous tense for to be. i didn't state it did. if you're able to translate from hebrew to english, you might know why this does, or does not.

couldn't find a present continuous tense here:

להיות – to be – Hebrew conjugation tables

or maybe this is the answer

Can someone please conjugate "to be" in hebrew?

Wait, what? What "other"? What word are you talking about? The text in 3:14 has only one instance of a to be verb, Ehyeh (3 times). That's it.

so why do you suppose there are those translations that use the hayah vs ehyeh?

That is true. "I will eat" means I haven't eaten yet. "I will be" indicates that up to now, he hasn't been. If you have a problem with that, start with the grammar and work it through. Don't invent other stuff.

i didn't. i used the interpretation that i have read multiple times. now, i'm asking you why "i will be" is used for a future tense when exodus 3:15 says forever. forever is both past, present, and future; or now. like the angel wrestling with jacob is the name secret to insure the people do not subject the name to abuse?

is haYah even a word?

 

[rosends]

i asked you, if hebrew had a present continuous tense for to be. i didn't state it did.

After asking, you then wrote " while the other present continuous tense implies that it occurred in the past, is occurring and will continue to occur" which is a claim that something exists.

couldn't find a present continuous tense here:

Because the to be verb has no present tense (continuous or otherwise) in Hebrew. The hoveh (which is the title of the present tense in grammar tables) is extant for other verbs (he guards is "hu shomer").

so why do you suppose there are those translations that use the hayah vs ehyeh?

No translations use hayah (which means "was"). If they used a Hebrew word, they wouldn't be translations. As to why there are translations that use "I am" instead of the accurace "I will be", I have no idea.

i didn't. i used the interpretation that i have read multiple times. now, i'm asking you why "i will be" is used for a future tense when exodus 3:15 says forever.

3:15 does NOT have the word "ehyeh" in it. It has the 4 letter name which is often considered to be a sort of portmanteau, not a word in and of itself -- a combination of the past and future forms.

is haYah even a word?

It means "was". Biblical grammar, though, is a bit more complex, so if you look in verses like 3:8 and 9 which start with "v'hayah" you will find that they mean "and it will be" because of the vav that begins the word and changes the tense.

 

[Fool]

3:15 does NOT have the word "ehyeh" in it. It has the 4 letter name which is often considered to be a sort of portmanteau, not a word in and of itself -- a combination of the past and future forms.

i didn't state it had the word ehyeh, i will be. i stated it has the word for+ever. forever is not a future tense word. forever literally means past, present, future.

the tense of the verb to be; which is future, doesn't match the idea of everlasting exactly but then past and future either one wouldn't be totally accurate of the idea.

It means "was". Biblical grammar, though, is a bit more complex, so if you look in verses like 3:8 and 9 which start with "v'hayah" you will find that they mean "and it will be" because of the vav that begins the word and changes the tense.

i've learned something. thank you