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When you use the word God...

God (upper case) means...

  • the god of the Bible, or the Abrahamic religions (aka, God is a proper noun)

    Votes: 9 24.3%
  • the god described by any type of monotheism

    Votes: 5 13.5%
  • any god from any type of theism

    Votes: 4 10.8%
  • some other meaning that I'll explain in my post

    Votes: 19 51.4%

  • Total voters
    37

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
So in the original text, the Bible is ambiguous? Where else in the Bible does the original text support multiple interpretations?

First of all, the only place dead Jesus went the day he died, was Not any Paradise, but Jesus went to Hell.
The living Jesus made the promise on the day he died, or ' today, you will be (future tense) with me in paradise'.
Both Jesus and the thief went to hell the day they died - Acts of the Apostles 2:27.
So, Jesus was telling the thief on 'their day of death' (today) that in the future the thief would have a resurrection.
That is also why the ' future tense' is used at Acts of the Apostles 24:15 that there 'is going to be' a resurrection.....
A resurrection of both the righteous and unrighteous. So, that thief would be part of the future happy-and-healthy physical resurrection of the unrighteous. Meaning he could gain everlasting life on a beautiful paradisical Earth as Eden originally was.
Just as Adam was offered everlasting life on Earth as long as he did Not break God's law, so the resurrected back-to-life thief will be offered everlasting life on Earth during Jesus' 1,000-year reign over Earth if he chooses to obey God.
 

ChristineM

"Be strong", I whispered to my coffee.
Premium Member
I find the Tetragrammaton letters YHWH is the identification for God's name over the titles of Lord or God.
Jesus taught he would see to it that God's name would 'be made known' at John 17:6; John 17:26.

This is quite interesting
Yahweh
 

9-10ths_Penguin

1/10 Subway Stalinist
Premium Member
Why does it seem problematic? For those who lived before the Bible was finished, you mean?
I mean that when we’re considering context in order to figure out what an author meant, the only things that are fair game are things that would have been known to the author. Some other book written by someone else centuries later would not have been known to that original author... even if we’ve decided to compile both books into one volume.

Actually, the Apostle Paul's words (again, in the Bible itself), @ 1 Corinthians 13:8-10, indicate that the miracles performed by the first-cent. Christian congregation would end "when that which is complete arrives. Referring to the writings of God's Word being complete.... it would be enough. Why? Because the complete Bible has everything we need to strengthen our faith.....no more need for miracles!

(Did I answer your concern? Hope you were able to follow my line of thought, and understand my point? I can go off on other tangents, sometimes. I do better face to face, than writing.)
Not at all. :D
 

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
This is quite interesting
Yahweh

Thank you for the ^ above^ link.
A Jewish professor told me that there are scholars who also prefer Yeho.wah as a Hebrew pronunciation.
He said he believed Yeho.wah was closer than just Yahweh because it is a three syllable name.
That a Masoretic text vowel points the divine name to read as Yeho'wah.
Also, years ago I heard that it was a Catholic Monk who first Latinized God's name in English as: Jeho'vah.
I suppose that would be around the same time as the King James Version in English at Psalms 83:18.
 

Hockeycowboy

Witness for Jehovah
Premium Member
I mean that when we’re considering context in order to figure out what an author meant, the only things that are fair game are things that would have been known to the author.


Well....you know what I believe: that the Bible’s Author is God.

Daniel said that what he wrote down, he didn’t understand. And when he asked for enlightenment, the Angel told him that only in the Last Days would understanding be revealed. — Daniel 12:8-10.


Job 26:7 is a verse that helped convince me that the Bible is from a Divine Source. Now, how would Moses (who apparently wrote Job) have possibly known that?

The Bible writers, to me, were simply writing down, not their thoughts, but God’s.
 

Willamena

Just me
Premium Member
At Psalms 110 (KJV Bibles ) I find the Upper-Case variant 'LORD' stands for the Tetragrammaton YHWH.
Whereas, I find the lower-case variant 'Lord' stands for the Lord Jesus, and Not his God (YHWH).
The lower-case variant is "lord."

As in, "I lord it over you with my knowledge of case variants."
 

Thief

Rogue Theologian
There is only ONE .....Almighty
(self-explanatory.....I hope)

but is also written......Ye ARE gods

each to his own ability......I suppose
 

syo

Well-Known Member
i mean any God from any religion. when i want to specify i say christian God, pagan God etc.
 

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
The lower-case variant is "lord."
As in, "I lord it over you with my knowledge of case variants."

Yes, I find at KJV Psalms 110 the lower-case variant is 'Lord' in some lower-case letters.
Whereas at KJV Psalms 110 the Upper-Case 'LORD' all in Upper-Case letters stands for the Tetragrammaton letters.
The Tetragrammaton is never applied to the lower-case Lord.
The Upper-Case LORD is applied to LORD God (YHWH)
The lower-case Lord is applied to Lord Jesus.
 

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
i mean any God from any religion. when i want to specify i say christian God, pagan God etc.

Some people think the Christian God is the only one God of the Bible, and some think Jesus is the Christian God.
So, just by saying the Christian God means different things to different people.
In either case, God is a just a title and Not a personal name.
The Tetragrammaton letters YHWH stands for the personal name of the Christian God which is Not Jesus.
 

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
There is only ONE .....Almighty
(self-explanatory.....I hope)
but is also written......Ye ARE gods
each to his own ability......I suppose

The 'ye are gods' ( gods with a lower-case letter "g" ) as found at Psalms 82 stands for or represents human judges.
In other words, those human judges were to use God's recorded judgement to judge matters as to what is right or what is wrong. They were to act in the capacity of representing, or being spokesmen, for God (YHWH).
 

Thief

Rogue Theologian
The 'ye are gods' ( gods with a lower-case letter "g" ) as found at Psalms 82 stands for or represents human judges.
In other words, those human judges were to use God's recorded judgement to judge matters as to what is right or what is wrong. They were to act in the capacity of representing, or being spokesmen, for God (YHWH).
and to be a son of God......you would have no God-like qualities?

I don't walk on water or raise the dead
I do not pronounce as a son of God

but I and anyone else who has recited the Lord's Prayer......
has MADE pronouncement......OUR Father

sons of God are we?
brothers are we?

my hour is not yet upon me
if I do well.....speak well....
perhaps heaven will in deed call me......brother
 

syo

Well-Known Member
Some people think the Christian God is the only one God of the Bible, and some think Jesus is the Christian God.
So, just by saying the Christian God means different things to different people.
In either case, God is a just a title and Not a personal name.
The Tetragrammaton letters YHWH stands for the personal name of the Christian God which is Not Jesus.
the christian God i mean the trinity.
 

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
the christian God i mean the trinity.

How can the Christian God be a triad or a trinity when God's spirit is a neuter "it".
In the Hebrew, at Numbers 11:17; Numbers 11:25 God's spirit is referred to as being a neuter "it".
An "it" is Not a person. Just as in English a car or a ship is referred to as a "she" but they remain a neuter "it".
So, I find the God of the Bible, the Christian God, is Not a trinity according to reasoning on Scripture.
 

Hockeycowboy

Witness for Jehovah
Premium Member
Thank you for the ^ above^ link.
A Jewish professor told me that there are scholars who also prefer Yeho.wah as a Hebrew pronunciation.
He said he believed Yeho.wah was closer than just Yahweh because it is a three syllable name.
That a Masoretic text vowel points the divine name to read as Yeho'wah.
Also, years ago I heard that it was a Catholic Monk who first Latinized God's name in English as: Jeho'vah.
I suppose that would be around the same time as the King James Version in English at Psalms 83:18.

Hello, hope you're doing well!
The above link mentions this about 'Yahweh':

"As Judaism became a universal rather than merely local religion, the more common noun Elohim, meaning “God,” tended to replace Yahweh to demonstrate the universal sovereignty of Israel’s God over all others."

This is accurate. Before Judaism 'became universal', the Hebrews wouldn't have done such a thing!
@ Judges 16:23, the Hebrew writer (likely Samuel) quoted the Philistines as calling their god Dagon, "Elohim'!" If Elohim really meant something uniquely special, Samuel wouldn't have used the term; and certainly the Hebrews wouldn't have relegated Yahweh down to the level of Dagon, not as a Name! Yahweh does not equal Dagon!
But by the future generations removing the Name, then replacing and applying Elohim as a Name for Yahweh, they've done that very thing.

Even Baal was Elohim, to some...for that matter, everyone thought their god was (or, gods were) Elohim.
 
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