women priests in christianity?

[syo]

some christian denominations allow women priests. why? on what ground?

 

[Jeremiah Ames]

Why not? On what ground?
I don’t see it forbidden in the Bible.
A man made religion, such as the Catholics, may forbid it, but that surely doesn’t make it right.

 

[Nakosis]

some christian denominations allow women priests. why? on what ground?

Why does The United Methodist Church ordain women? – The United Methodist Church

Don't know myself exactly, but when I was twelve, which was a wee bit ago, my Grandmother went to a methodist church which had a lesbian pastor. She was kind of proud of the fact as I recall.

 

[syo]

Why not? On what ground?

the orthodox denomination is called apostolic. the orthodox priests continue the work of the apostles and the apostles continue the work of jesus, who was male. so priests are males only, because jesus was male. and the church is female. that's how it is.

 

[Jumi]

the orthodox denomination is called apostolic. the orthodox priests continue the work of the apostles and the apostles continue the work of jesus, who was male. so priests are males only, because jesus was male. and the church is female. that's how it is.

So you're assuming that because Jesus was male, it's a man's world and women are supposed to be forced to be followers instead of leaders?

 

[syo]

So you're assuming that because Jesus was male, it's a man's world and women are supposed to be forced to be followers instead of leaders?

not exactly. priests are servants of god and therefore servants of humanity, not leaders.

 

[sun rise]

Women are taking power in this world. Faulty reasoning based on a historical event will be swept away.

 

[syo]

in orthodoxy, women can become nuns and offer great services as spiritual guides.

 

[lostwanderingsoul]

I Corinthians 14:34 says that women should remain silent in church. How can one be a priest if she must remain silent. So it is not a human rule but God's rule in the Bible. Oh, of course, no one believes in what the Bible says or they have to explain why it means something different from what it says.

 

[Sanzbir]

in orthodoxy, women can become nuns and offer great services as spiritual guides.

Why nuns and not priests??

If your logic is because priests continue the work of Jesus who was male, therefore all priests should be male, why not monks/nuns too??

The first known Christian to practice monastic living was Paul the Hermit, who was male. So if priests must be male because they are following in the footsteps of Jesus who was male, shouldn't monks also be required to be male because they are following in the footsteps of Paul who was male??

I don't seem to understand your logic here... what makes a monk a different case??

 

[Nakosis]

Why does The United Methodist Church ordain women? – The United Methodist Church

Don't know myself exactly, but when I was twelve, which was a wee bit ago, my Grandmother went to a methodist church which had a lesbian pastor. She was kind of proud of the fact as I recall.

This then is a brief overview of the case we make for the ordination of women. But we are mindful that two passages in the New Testament are often used as "conclusive" arguments against it: 1 Corinthians 14:35-35 and 1 Timothy 2:8-15. I will now turn attention to showing how we view these passages within the affirmation of the ordination of women.

The Corinthian text addresses women keeping silent in the church meetings. Perhaps the most obvious point in this passage is that it does not even refer to who is leading the service, but only to those who are in the congregation. The silence of women on such occasions is a carryover from the synagogue, and it was a sign of "reverence" not limitation. Moreover, the culture of the time looked askance at women who spoke in public in ways that could be perceived as disruptive. In extreme cases, their morality would even be called into question.

The point for us in the Corinthian text is that it simply does not address the issue of women in leadership, much less ordination. It is not a text that even applies to the topic in question, because it refers only to what women should do in the audience. Nothing is said of what they may (or may not) do up front.

The passage in 1 Timothy is the second passage cited by those who oppose the ordination of women. At face value, it appears to be an open-and-shut case against women's ordination because Paul says clearly, "I permit no woman to teach or to have authority over a man" (2:12). However, it is wrong to make this a blanket statement, for to do so would cause Paul to contradict himself. He spoke approvingly of women ministering publicly in 1 Corinthians 11:5. He commended Euodia and Synteche for their labor in the gospel (Philippians 4:3), and he held Lois and Eunice in highest honor (2 Timothy 1:5).

So, what does the passage in 1 Timothy really mean if it is not a wholesale prohibition? It appears that what Paul was forbidding was women ministering "independently" — this is, "having authority" over men. The early church was barely thirty years old when Paul wrote this passage, and in some places the congregations were even younger. In that length of time, women had not yet risen to roles of leadership as quickly as men. This was not discrimination or prohibition as much as it was a reference to current reality. So, what Paul resisted was a woman "running ahead" of the development of the church at that time and presuming a role of "authority" not yet universalized in the Body of Christ.

But the seeds of change had been sown, and sown by Paul himself, who was already charting the course for the Christian church, different from Judaism and Greco-Roman culture. He was declaring the shift when he wrote revolutionary words in Galatians 3:28: "There is no longer Jew or Greek, there is no longer slave or free, there is no longer male and female; for all of you are one in Christ Jesus." This is the principle that would revolutionize the church and lay the foundation for the ordination of women. It is against this transformational passage that we ultimately interpret our affirmation.

Commentary: The Ordination of Women – The United Methodist Church

 

[Brickjectivity]

some christian denominations allow women priests. why? on what ground?

Some allow men to be priests, too. (I think its a way to keep certain people busy. shhh)

I Corinthians 14:34 says that women should remain silent in church. How can one be a priest if she must remain silent. So it is not a human rule but God's rule in the Bible. Oh, of course, no one believes in what the Bible says or they have to explain why it means something different from what it says.

I think that overlooks the discussion that is going on in I Corinthians. It begins with the theme of being united and overlooking disagreements. This is where the famous "Is Christ divided?" bit is and chapter 13 is the chapter about love. I Corinthians 8:2 says those who think they know something do not know it as they ought. In general the whole theme is about putting aside differences and not arguing. By the time we get to chapter 14 Paul starts talking about keeping things orderly, and he says there is some law about women keeping silent. I don't know what law he is referring to, do you? What law?

 

[syo]

Why nuns and not priests??

If your logic is because priests continue the work of Jesus who was male, therefore all priests should be male, why not monks/nuns too??

The first known Christian to practice monastic living was Paul the Hermit, who was male. So if priests must be male because they are following in the footsteps of Jesus who was male, shouldn't monks also be required to be male because they are following in the footsteps of Paul who was male??

I don't seem to understand your logic here... what makes a monk a different case??

jesus is god, paul was human. that's major difference.

 

[Unveiled Artist]

I Corinthians 14:34 says that women should remain silent in church. How can one be a priest if she must remain silent. So it is not a human rule but God's rule in the Bible. Oh, of course, no one believes in what the Bible says or they have to explain why it means something different from what it says.

Why are cultural laws binding in another country and times period be binded on our time period and culture? Also, if Catholism is governed by man-made rules rather than god-made rules and they follow an ongoing tradition from way back when, how are protestants leaning away from man-made tradition where baptist, pentecostals, and JW etc still have rituals and rules about men and women made "law" in the Cathlolic Othorodox Church and tradition from old testament times?

If men and women roles then why not why not the laws against stoning and things of that nature? If we follow man made traditions such as male and woman roles (though christ said no man, no woman, jew or gentile) and was harsh against jewish authorities because of it, how and why would he change his mind about our roles in relation to our faith?

 

[Jainarayan]

A man made religion, such as the Catholics, may forbid it, but that surely doesn’t make it right.

You do realize that what are now called the Catholic and Eastern Orthodox Churches was the original Church, right? Every other denomination is a breakaway. You know that, right?

 

[metis]

First of all, Jesus and the apostles were all males. Secondly, priests and bishops often had to travel, sometimes alone, and Jewish tradition had it that no woman should be put at risk by doing as such.

However, that was then and this is now, so I personally don't have a problem with accepting female priests, bishops, rabbis, imams, etc.

 

[Sanzbir]

jesus is god, paul was human. that's major difference.

Alright...

So I don't see where in my Bible the rule "when following the example of God, be sure to match gender, when following the example of man, do whatever". Where do you get that notion??

 

[Kenny]

some christian denominations allow women priests. why? on what ground?

Gal 3:28 There is neither Jew nor Gentile, neither slave nor free, nor is there male and female, for you are all one in Christ Jesus.

Luke 12:12 The Holy Spirit will tell you at that very moment what you must say.”

John 8:28 Then said Jesus unto them, When ye have lifted up the Son ofman, then shall ye know that I am he, and that I do nothing ofmyself; but as my Father hath taught me, I speak these things.

Mainly because it isn't the gender that does the work, does the calling or causes God to move. It is faith, calling and gifts where God is working through regardless of gender

 

[syo]

Alright...

So I don't see where in my Bible the rule "when following the example of God, be sure to match gender, when following the example of man, do whatever". Where do you get that notion??

what are you talking about? what example? priests don't follow an example. jesus isn't an example. priests are the representative of jesus on earth. a woman can't be a representative.

 

[Sanzbir]

what are you talking about? what example? priests don't follow an example. jesus isn't an example. priests are the representative of jesus on earth. a woman can't be a representative.

I'm asking by what logic can't they??

You say they can't because Jesus was a man, and thus women can't be representatives of Jesus because they lack that quality in common.

So...

Jesus was Semitic. Does that mean all Gentiles cannot be priests?? If you answer no, then I ask: if gender, why not ethnicity??

Jesus was a Nazarene. Does that mean people with hometowns other than Nazareth cannot be priests?? If you answer no, then I ask: if gender, why not hometown??

What is the basis that you insist on this one particular quality of Jesus must be mirrored in his representatives, and why not the other qualities?? What scriptural or philosophical basis do you have to back this up??