siti
Well-Known Member
Yes - so the "scrolls" here are specifically the four canonical "Gospels" of the Christian Bible as the word "Gospel" would be understood by the averagely intelligent English reader with little or no knowledge of Baha'i tradition (i.e. me)?In the first case, he writes "in the first scroll (safr), which is attributed to Matthew, on the occasion when they asked about the signs of the manifestation to come, he answered, "Immediately after the oppression etc..." It's a direct quote from Matthew, given first in Arabic.
In the second case he writes, "in the three scrolls attributed to Luke, Mark and John it is mentioned/recalled (dhekr ast)..."
So there is no reason (for me) to assume that when the translator renders a later passage thus:
In another passage of the Gospel it is written: “And it came to pass that on a certain day the father of one of the disciples of Jesus had died. That disciple reporting the death of his father unto Jesus, asked for leave to go and bury him. Whereupon, Jesus, that Essence of Detachment, answered and said: “Let the dead bury their dead.”
that Baha'u'llah would have had in mind anything other than the actual Gospel account in Luke (or Matthew) in which Jesus does indeed answer the disciple "let the dead bury their dead" (direct quote highlighting the need for the disciple to focus on spiritual matters but not necessarily encouraging him to disrespect his father's memory by not turning up for his actual funeral) but which does not, in fact, state that the man's father had died - and yet this is presented as part of the same quote/outline of what the Gospel says in Baha'u'llah's account of it?
What I am trying to say is that even if it is not intended as a direct quote it is presented as a narrative intended to reflect what the Gospel account actually says. Only it doesn't - it is an imperfect, erroneous reflection of what the Gospel account actually says even if it is a reasonable encapsulation of what might have transpired (which of course we have no way of knowing).
All of which would be entirely irrelevant if it were not for the fact that the claim of infallibility was made. How could an infallible Manifestation possibly imagine that the Gospel actually said something that it did not, in fact, say?
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