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Gravitational waves in Newton theory are 4-th order, in Einstein's are 2-nd!!!

questfortruth

Well-Known Member
NEWS 2017: Nobel Prize for proving of Gravitational Waves!

Take the Newton's theory. Two masses of detector (m, m) are connected through an elastic material (which length is L), the source of gravity is in r meters away (and has mass M) and has the size X.
Then the force, which is expressed on receiver is:
F = GmM/(r-L)^2-GmM/r^2. Now, the source is vibrating with amplitude X. Then, the force in receiver is vibrating with amplitude dF = d(GmM/(r-L)^2-GmM/r^2)=-6 GmM L X/(r^4).
Its the 4-th order gravity wave. There can not be infinite speed in nature (because can not be measured), so the gravity wave propagates with finite speed. All that could be realized already by Newton.

The General Relativity adds the 2-nd order vibration, so, finally the vector of stress, expressed on detector is

dF=-A 6 GmM L X sin(t)/(r^4) + B sin(t)/(r^2),

where A and B are two different constant vectors.

P.S. Give likes also to my post about methodology of Science:
Who has changed the unchangeable Laws of Nature? Lawmaker. Can we call this lawmaker "God"?
 

blü 2

Veteran Member
Premium Member
Its the 4-th order gravity wave.
Newton had no concept of gravity waves. They're from Einstein's work,
There can not be infinite speed in nature (because can not be measured), so the gravity wave propagates with finite speed. All that could be realized already by Newton.
Newton thought gravity was a force and that it acted instantly. He had no concept of the speed of light as a limit. That too is from Einstein's work.
 

metis

aged ecumenical anthropologist
Also, Newton did not get to the point of realizing either Theory of Relativity, especially E=MC2, but what is amazing is how close he may have gotten to it. The guy was a genius but in his own time.
 

LuisDantas

Aura of atheification
Premium Member
I love the way that science evolves, adapts, refines and improves.
If only religion could do that.....
Indeed.

It is a bit sad how often theistic expectations attempt to "criticize" science for having the wisdom and humility of not posing as dogmatic truth.

I can't help but conclude that some people have too big an attachment for cheap certainty for anyone's good.
 

leibowde84

Veteran Member
NEWS 2017: Nobel Prize for proving of Gravitational Waves!

Take the Newton's theory. Two masses of detector (m, m) are connected through an elastic material (which length is L), the source of gravity is in r meters away (and has mass M) and has the size X.
Then the force, which is expressed on receiver is:
F = GmM/(r-L)^2-GmM/r^2. Now, the source is vibrating with amplitude X. Then, the force in receiver is vibrating with amplitude dF = d(GmM/(r-L)^2-GmM/r^2)=-6 GmM L X/(r^4).
Its the 4-th order gravity wave. There can not be infinite speed in nature (because can not be measured), so the gravity wave propagates with finite speed. All that could be realized already by Newton.

The General Relativity adds the 2-nd order vibration, so, finally the vector of stress, expressed on detector is

dF=-A 6 GmM L X sin(t)/(r^4) + B sin(t)/(r^2),

where A and B are two different constant vectors.

P.S. Give likes also to my post about methodology of Science:
Who has changed the unchangeable Laws of Nature? Lawmaker. Can we call this lawmaker "God"?
None of this even suggests that the laws of nature have changed, though. Where are you getting that incorrect assumption from?

Newton was wrong about a lot. He was right about a lot too. Einstein simply improved upon Newton's understanding. So, what is your point with all of this?
 

leibowde84

Veteran Member
How large is the percent of scientific doubt concerning the formula 1+1=2 ? May it be 0.001 % ?

1+1=2 is a man-made, logical truth. There is no doubt about it's accuracy because of what the man-made terms "one" and "two" signify. It is the same class of certainty as with truths based on language. "All bachelors are not currently married" would be another example. It is absolutely true because of the meaning of the terms.
 

leibowde84

Veteran Member

Revoltingest

Pragmatic Libertarian
Premium Member
As Revoltingest kindly explained, this is an "a priori" truth. 1+1=2 is self-evident. Experience is not necessary to know it is true. It is true simply because of what "1" and "2" signify.
And to be really pedantic, it's also based upon what + and = mean.
 
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