I just quoted what your "real teachers" wrote, I guess you can't understand their English neither!
Let me break it down for you,
*** w79 6/15 p. 23 par. 4 “The Dead in Christ Shall Rise First” ***
This OFFICIAL PRESENCE begins with his second coming. According to the “sign” that Jesus foretold and also according to certain Bible time measurements, his invisible “presence,” or parousia, began in autumn of 1914 C.E.
It says, "His official PRESENCE "BEGINS" with His SECOND coming", so, they said, 'with Jesus' SECOND' coming His official PRESENCE began correct, do you see that kjw47?
HIS OFFICIAL PRESENCE BEGINS WITH HIS SECOND COMING, Got it? And His PRESENCE began in Autumn of 1914, you with me so far?
*** w54 6/15 p. 372 par. 11 The Revelation of Jesus Christ ***
As applied to the second coming of Christ it is used to indicate either the years of the beginning of his visit or to refer to the entire time he is with mankind. This time began in 1914 and means that Christ is now present though invisible.
Your "real teachers" said, "the SECOND coming of Christ..refers to the entire time He is with mankind", got it so far? "This time BEGAN in 1914".
Got it now kjw47, your "real teachers" said that His PRESENCE began WITH His SECOND coming.
You are indoctrinated so bad that you can't even see the deception. Why do you feel the need to defend such deception from those men? If you've gotten "new light" on the teaching, please share it with us, even better, please explain what you see those two quotes saying.