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spirit of antichrist is in the world today

kjw47

Well-Known Member
Wow, and we should listen to you? The Jehovah's Witnesses did not translate the Bible.
It was already in English way, way, way before any of your Jesus' teachers were even born.


Filled with Catholicism translating errors to fit false council teachings. Those errors were not corrected until the New world translation.
 

kjw47

Well-Known Member
It has nothing to do with English. You said,



You said Jesus DID use God's name, and referenced John 17:6, 26, neither of those verses has Jesus using that name. If God wanted His name used as bad as you are saying He did, why is it NOT recorded that Jesus or anyone in the New Testament using it on a regular bases? Not one time while talking about God or the Father is it RECORDED that any of the New Testament writers, participants or bystanders used that name, except for the FEW times they QUOTED OT scripture. You claim God inspired His name in the Bible, it is RECORDED over and over in the OT of people using it, why did they not RECORD the use of it in the NT? WHY WAS THE NAME NOT USED ON A REGULAR BASES AND RECORDED?

The words, God and Father together are recorded at least 11 times in the NT, why was the name "Jehovah" never used along with them?

Jesus was praying "to" the Father in John 17. He said He made His name known, but not once did He refer to the Father as "Jehovah" in that prayer, why not?

John 17:6 (ESV Strong's) 6 “I have manifested your name to the people whom you gave me out of the world. Yours they were, and you gave them to me, and they have kept your word.

That would have been the PERFECT point to utter the name, wouldn't you say?

'I have manifested your name, Jehovah, to the people'. Why did He NOT USE IT?

John 17:12 (ESV Strong's) 12 While I was with them, I kept them in your name, which you have given me. I have guarded them, and not one of them has been lost except the son of destruction, that the Scripture might be fulfilled.

'While I was with them Jehovah, I kept them in your name'. But, He didn't say that either, why not?


A 10 year old could understand both those verses. Why cant you?
 

kjw47

Well-Known Member
Lol, do you know the REAL definition of apostate?

I am not, nor have I ever been associated with the witnesses, therefore, I am NOT an apostate. No one living before 1914 are apostates either.

Your teachers still DO NOT know the truth, that's apparent by the ever changing mistakes they make!



Actually they did make some errors. They corrected their errors as well as the errors that came in for the last 1750 years--no one else made correction, because truths are not being revealed through any one else. They continue in their errors and makes it impossible for any who listen to them to accomplish this bottom line reality of Gods will= John 4:22-24
 

kjw47

Well-Known Member
Luke 16:10
10 The person faithful in what is least is faithful also in much, and the person unrighteous in what is least is unrighteous also in much.

You are not right about the Jehovah's Witnesses translating the Bible from the original Hebrew and Greek. That they referred to the Greek does not mean they translated it. They used the English version to produce the New World Translation. It is not for debate. It is a fact.


I did not say the JW teachers had used the originals--You made it up because you cannot understand English without twisting what is said.
Jesus' real teachers get holy spirit--its all they need.
 

kjw47

Well-Known Member
You have to put commentary to scripture so I won't guess what you're implying. I can't read Kings James Version.

:leafwind:

John 17:5 Now, Father, glorify me (Jesus) with your own self with the glory which I (the father) had with you (jesus) before the world existed.

Sounds like Jesus wanted his father to glorify him since father had already chosen for his son to be glorified even before the world existed.

John 17:6 I revealed your name to the people whom you have given me out of the world. They were yours, and you have given them to me. They have kept your word.

I (jesus) have revealed your name whom you (god) gave me (jesus) out to the world. They were yours (the father's) an you (the father) gave them to me (jesus). [As a result], they kept your word [through me-jesus]

No where in this does it say god's name. In Exodus, God says "I AM who I AM" with no reference to a specific name. To call him a name is to make him into our description when I could have sworn god cannot be described by us. Jesus didn't change Moses' laws.

You must believe jesus is god. I know he is not. Though, I've debated it with scripture both sides in fact on RF many times.

John 17: 26 I made known to them your name, and will make it known; that the love with which you loved me may be in them, and I in them."

The name that jesus said to god he'd made known is himself. Since the only way to get to god is jesus (hence john 3:16) and he is the light of the world, of course god would designate a special name for his son.

The problem isn't about the name. God has no name. The problem is trinitarian thinking jesus is god only because of the type of relationship jesus had with his father. It's a total misconception, missing pronouns, conjunctions, and prepositions. But that's okay. People come to god in many ways. Some idolize the human christ, others do not.

It is what it is.


undeniable fact of Hebrew language---I am that I am is a mistranslation-- I will be what I will be is correct. Trinities mistranslated that statement to mislead.
God told Moses his personal name, so again you are in error---YHVH(Jehovah)--100% fact--every spot in the OT where--GOD--LORD is that name belongs. Every translation without that name in place is altered. Altered to deceive.
 

kjw47

Well-Known Member
God does not need a name to be god. That's what you guys want to connect with him more. It's literally trying to idolize god to relate to him.The Jews don't do this. That's all christian.


You better re look at fact.
 

kjw47

Well-Known Member
What is "sad" is the fact that time and time again you do not actually engage the proposition I present to you. You construct strawmen, irrelevant babble, and mindless repetition. What in the world does this response have to do with my Scripture reference to the very premise of this thread (which you started) dealing with the "spirit of antichrist" and my identifying it with the JW's dogma? Nothing whatsoever. It must mean you agree since you don't offer any objection to my assessment.

"By this you know the Spirit of God: every spirit that confesses that Jesus has come in the flesh is from God: and every spirit that does not confess Jesus is not from God; and this is the spirit of the antichrist of which you have heard that is coming, and now is already in the world." 1 John 4:2-3

There is no Michael here. It is Jesus who has come in the flesh. The preincarnate Son of God has come at the incarnation of the God-man - Jesus. There is no preexistent Michael the Archangel coming to earth to become the man Jesus. That is in your eisegetical imagination. Go to the text if your dare.

You also fled in defeat when I presented these 2 texts from your very own NWT. I'm calling you out again. I dare you to deal with these exegetically.

Ps.102:25-27
Long ago you laid the foundations of the earth,
And the heavens are the work of your hands.+
26 They will perish, but you will remain;
Just like a garment they will all wear out.
Just like clothing you will replace them, and they will pass away.
27 But you are the same, and your years will never end.+
28 The children of your servants will dwell securely,
And their offspring will be firmly established before you.”+
The "you" refers to "You God" in verse 24

This tells us that God is immutable, He does not change. It is only true about God.

Heb.1:8-12
But about the Son, he says: “God is your throne+ forever and ever, and the scepter of your Kingdom is the scepter of uprightness.* 9 You loved righteousness, and you hated lawlessness. That is why God, your God, anointed you+ with the oil of exultation more than your companions.”+ 10 And: “At the beginning, O Lord, you laid the foundations of the earth, and the heavens are the works of your hands. 11 They will perish, but you will remain; and just like a garment, they will all wear out, 12 and you will wrap them up just as a cloak, as a garment, and they will be changed. But you are the same, and your years will never come to an end.”+

The kai/and in verse 10 continues what God says about the Son in vs. 8 and 9.

Go ahead, make my day!


Fact of life---Catholicism translating remained when the protestants translated--Any one with 1/2 a brain knows Jesus did not start Catholicism, yet all the blind refuse to believe they made translating errors to fit false council teachings that carried over into every trinity based translation. Not one had a clue by the time protestants translated--so all living by the errors are being mislead to stand in opposition to Gods will.
Why? Like you said--you condemned me for sharing what Jesus taught.
 

Unveiled Artist

Veteran Member
undeniable fact of Hebrew language---I am that I am is a mistranslation-- I will be what I will be is correct. Trinities mistranslated that statement to mislead.
God told Moses his personal name, so again you are in error---YHVH(Jehovah)--100% fact--every spot in the OT where--GOD--LORD is that name belongs. Every translation without that name in place is altered. Altered to deceive.

Notice I will be what I be has no name. It is saying exactly what i am is. I am and I be does not explain who the " I ". Its the same context. You cant blame it on the interpretations because words change. The context is he is what he is. Nothing more and nothing less. Anything you add is not of god. Jews know this. Christians, well...

Also I am and I be are "To Be" verbs. Why would you think they are different in context and where is the name of god in To Be that isn't written in the words and context of I Am?
 
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Unveiled Artist

Veteran Member
You better re look at fact.

The fact is that is a christian view of scripture.

Jews (who you say you come from) do not see it that way.

Facts are beliefs that are proven, confirmed, and universal. Christianity does not fit as fact. It is a faith. Once you claim certainity, you are claiming you know more about life than a non christian.

That is wrong
 

Unveiled Artist

Veteran Member
Notice I will be what I be has no name. It is saying exactly what i am is. I am and I be does not explain who the " I ". Its the same context. You cant blame it on the interpretations because words change. The context is he is what he is. Nothing more and nothing less. Anything you add is not of god. Jews know this. Christians, welll...
It has nothing to do with English. You said,



You said Jesus DID use God's name, and referenced John 17:6, 26, neither of those verses has Jesus using that name. If God wanted His name used as bad as you are saying He did, why is it NOT recorded that Jesus or anyone in the New Testament using it on a regular bases? Not one time while talking about God or the Father is it RECORDED that any of the New Testament writers, participants or bystanders used that name, except for the FEW times they QUOTED OT scripture. You claim God inspired His name in the Bible, it is RECORDED over and over in the OT of people using it, why did they not RECORD the use of it in the NT? WHY WAS THE NAME NOT USED ON A REGULAR BASES AND RECORDED?

The words, God and Father together are recorded at least 11 times in the NT, why was the name "Jehovah" never used along with them?

Jesus was praying "to" the Father in John 17. He said He made His name known, but not once did He refer to the Father as "Jehovah" in that prayer, why not?

John 17:6 (ESV Strong's) 6 “I have manifested your name to the people whom you gave me out of the world. Yours they were, and you gave them to me, and they have kept your word.

That would have been the PERFECT point to utter the name, wouldn't you say?

'I have manifested your name, Jehovah, to the people'. Why did He NOT USE IT?

John 17:12 (ESV Strong's) 12 While I was with them, I kept them in your name, which you have given me. I have guarded them, and not one of them has been lost except the son of destruction, that the Scripture might be fulfilled.

'While I was with them Jehovah, I kept them in your name'. But, He didn't say that either, why not?

Sounds like "kept them in your name" means jesus not wanting to take credit for what the creator wants jesus to do. Christians say everything in Christ's name. Christ says everything in his Father's name.
 

Rick B

Active Member
Premium Member
Fact of life---Catholicism translating remained when the protestants translated--Any one with 1/2 a brain knows Jesus did not start Catholicism, yet all the blind refuse to believe they made translating errors to fit false council teachings that carried over into every trinity based translation. Not one had a clue by the time protestants translated--so all living by the errors are being mislead to stand in opposition to Gods will.
Why? Like you said--you condemned me for sharing what Jesus taught.

If you are trying to reply to my post please notice that I was using your NWT version of the Bible. So your reference to Catholicism and trinity based translation is non-sequitur. But, of course, your every response is non-sequitur prattle. And I don't think that's a coincidence. It's because you are incapable of an honest and rational defense of your position.

I dropped the gauntlet challenging you to go to those Scriptures comparing Ps.102:25-27 with Heb.1:8-12 again. You fled again. Coward. Why? Because these 2 Scriptures alone destroy your argument and your sect. You lose. Again.
 
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djhwoodwerks

Well-Known Member
A 10 year old could understand both those verses. Why cant you?

Yes, if you let a 10 y/o read the NT, he/she will see that Jesus never uttered the name. Jesus NEVER told anyone to use it, NEVER!

I can't, because those verses do not say what you want them to say. Please, just answer this question, PLEASE?

If God wants His name USED and known as bad as you claim He does, why does the Bible NOT have any record of Jesus, God's own Son, or anyone in the NT using His name? If it is mandatory for everyone to use His name, as you claim it is, wouldn't you think the people in the NT, especially Jesus, would have USED it on a regular basis? Is it one of those, 'do as I say, not as I do' situations?

Every witness tries to make an argument out of silence, it doesn't work! Just like you witnesses say, "Jesus never claimed to be God". Because it's NOT recorded that Jesus EVER said it, that means He isn't, right? There is NO record of Jesus EVER uttering the name Jehovah, so, by the witness argument of silence, Jesus NEVER said the name.

From your own Insight book,

*** it-2 p. 464 Name ***
A word or phrase that constitutes a distinctive designation of a person, place, animal, plant, or other object. “Name” can mean a person’s reputation or the person himself.

Jesus never uttered the name Jehovah, but He always talked about His Fathers character!
 

djhwoodwerks

Well-Known Member
Actually they did make some errors. They corrected their errors as well as the errors that came in for the last 1750 years--no one else made correction, because truths are not being revealed through any one else. They continue in their errors and makes it impossible for any who listen to them to accomplish this bottom line reality of Gods will= John 4:22-24

Oh my, do you even see the error in your thinking? Probably not, because you are programed to SEE what your "real teachers" want you to SEE, you don't and can't think for yourself.

"They corrected their errors as well as the errors that came in for the last 1750 years--no one else made correction, because truths are not being revealed through any one else."

Does that really make sense to you? Lord I hope not, I hope you were just in a hurry and mis-typed!

Your "real teachers" make "corrections" because THEY are the "only ones" TRUTH is being revealed to?

If your "true teachers" are having TRUTH "revealed" to them, why is there a need for "correction"? I don't understand that at all!
 

savagewind

Veteran Member
Premium Member
I did not say the JW teachers had used the originals--You made it up because you cannot understand English without twisting what is said.
Jesus' real teachers get holy spirit--its all they need.
I think that you said the Jehovah's Witnesses translated the Bible. Do you know what translate means?
 

djhwoodwerks

Well-Known Member
All must ask themselves--Since Jesus said the 2 things at Matt 6:33= ultra important( First in ones daily life)--a true followers heart tells their mind every single day to accomplish both of these. All better take a good look.

Yes, EVERYONE must ask themselves! I know that is directed to everyone who is not a witness, but you should be asking yourself.

Matthew 6:33 (ESV Strong's) 33 But seek first the kingdom of God and his righteousness, and all these things will be added to you.

Do you understand what is meant by "the kingdom of God" in that verse? I will bet you are "seeking" the coming kingdom.

Do you understand what is meant by, "and His righteousness"? I will bet you don't! These verses describe the witness org perfectly,

Romans 10:1-4 (ESV Strong's) 1 Brothers, my heart's desire and prayer to God for them is that they may be saved. 2 For I bear them witness that they have a zeal for God, but not according to knowledge. 3 For, being ignorant of the righteousness of God, and seeking to establish their own, they did not submit to God's righteousness. 4 For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to everyone who believes.

Witness are ignorant about the righteousness of God, they believe they can establish their own, by not going to war, not eating blood, going door to door, saying the word "Jehovah". They believe they can earn their righteousness, you can't!
 

savagewind

Veteran Member
Premium Member
@kjw47 Translate means to communicate the meaning of the words of one language with the words of another language. It is about changing the language form.

I asked you about who translated the Bible and you said that you think it was the Catholics and the Jehovah's Witnesses. Then you said that they didn't start with the Hebrew and the Greek.

Please tell me what you think to translate the Bible means. Do you think it means to explain it?

The Bible was translated and the translation carried over meaning. Real meaning requires the translator to be for The Holy Spirit, but you said, "No apostate ever knew a truth before the JW teachers did. Only in twisted reasonings of those who stand in opposition".

Then, I said, "who translated the Bible?". Someone who knows about the truth had to have done it or the Bible wouldn't be right. If men translated the Bible without The Truth then it would be the work of men. According to the Jehovah's Witnesses, The Bible is the work of God, Jehovah.

It was translated and copied BEFORE any JW teacher was ever born.
 

djhwoodwerks

Well-Known Member
I did not say the JW teachers had used the originals

You're saying that the "real teachers" didn't create their Bible from the original transcripts, they used the copies of the copies and then wrote what they THOUGHT the originals should say?

I would really think about that if I were you!

Your "real teachers" are the only ones who get the "truth" from God, but with that "truth" they keep making "errors" that have to continuously be "corrected". Good thing God is patient huh?
 

kjw47

Well-Known Member
Notice I will be what I be has no name. It is saying exactly what i am is. I am and I be does not explain who the " I ". Its the same context. You cant blame it on the interpretations because words change. The context is he is what he is. Nothing more and nothing less. Anything you add is not of god. Jews know this. Christians, well...

Also I am and I be are "To Be" verbs. Why would you think they are different in context and where is the name of god in To Be that isn't written in the words and context of I Am?



God hadn't revealed his name to Moses at that point. He did later.
 

kjw47

Well-Known Member
The fact is that is a christian view of scripture.

Jews (who you say you come from) do not see it that way.

Facts are beliefs that are proven, confirmed, and universal. Christianity does not fit as fact. It is a faith. Once you claim certainity, you are claiming you know more about life than a non christian.

That is wrong



Fact---whether this world likes it or not--Jesus is only with the JW teachers.
 

kjw47

Well-Known Member
If you are trying to reply to my post please notice that I was using your NWT version of the Bible. So your reference to Catholicism and trinity based translation is non-sequitur. But, of course, your every response is non-sequitur prattle. And I don't think that's a coincidence. It's because you are incapable of an honest and rational defense of your position.

I dropped the gauntlet challenging you to go to those Scriptures comparing Ps.102:25-27 with Heb.1:8-12 again. You fled again. Coward. Why? Because these 2 Scriptures alone destroy your argument and your sect. You lose. Again.



I have 0 fear of what is fact. Jehovah will showing the whole world very soon. Few found the way.
 
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