Why is homophobia inherent in it? I know even orthodox Christians who do not subscribe to such prejudices. There is plenty of theology that has been done to interpret scripture in a different context in this regard. And though this was not specifically mentioned it is probably apt to point out that the vast majority of Christian traditions do not regard the Bible as without any sort of error whatsoever, nor do they necessarily believe it to be a straightforward text or only open to a single or literal interpretation.
As an Anglican, albeit an unconventional one in some ways, I often feel the way these discussions are framed assumes that fundamentalist and evangelical understandings of scripture are somehow dominant or traditional. They are not. They are quite new to the scene in terms of Christianity's history. As an Episcopalian it is not enough to discuss the Bible alone as if it is self-evident in all of its meanings or interpretations. There is also tradition to consider, reason, personal and collective experience, new developments in theology, science, and philosophy, and the emerging consensus (or lack thereof) within and across Christian communities.
The way the OP is framed seems to address a totally different kind of animal than modern day Anglicanism. Questions like this are too broad to take into account the different traditions that exist in Christianity. We are not all the same.