Presenting this again,
John 14:6
If Jesus is the only way to the father, then how did the O.T. persons know God?
How do you reconcile this?
This question is mostly directed at those considering themselves biblical adherents,
The first prophesy in Eden spoke of a seed that was to come. (Genesis 3:15) As time went on, clarifications were made about who the players were in this prophesy....like a riddle.
Jews were expecting their Messiah (anointed one) when Jesus made his way to the Jordan for baptism.....the one whose sandals John the Baptist said he was not worthy to remove. They knew from prophesies in Daniel that he was to come at that time. (Luke 3:15)
King David spoke about him.
Psalm 110:1-2:
"Jehovah saith unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand,
Until I make thine enemies thy footstool.
Jehovah will send forth the rod of thy strength out of Zion:
Rule thou in the midst of thine enemies." (ASV)
The Messiah was spoken of as David's "Lord"......he was to 'sit at God's right hand' awaiting the time when God would establish his kingdom, which the Jews believed would be on earth, not in heaven.
In fulfillment of prophesy, John was the one who 'prepared the way' for Jews to come to Jesus as their Messiah. Since Jesus is the "way the truth and the life" and there is no way to come to the Father 'except through Christ', then it means that all who deny him are lost. If he said "NO ONE " can come to the Father "except through me" then I believe he means exactly what he says.
The Jews as a nation did not come to him and so he said they were 'abandoned'. (Matthew 23:37-39)