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Anyone got info on the twin Messiahs , what happened tot hem why didn't the desciples accept them?
Help accelerate the Messianic Era by unravelling the riddle of the Twin Messiahs – the Josephic and Davidic Messiahs according to the secret teachings of the Gaon of Vilna
Wiki said there were different Jews recognizing different Messiahs so Jesus was not the only one. SO why choose Jesus?
Because it's not true,There's only one Messiah. But Joseph is definitely a shadow of Jesus. And his brothers not recognizing him is symbolic of the Jews who don't recognize him today. The two brothers who Joseph kept in darkness were Judah and Benjamin. Who became the tribes of Judah and Benjamin, and who are the Jews we know as Jews today, kept in darkness about the Messiah. And as the story goes, at the end Jesus will reveal himself to them and they will all be a big happy family.
Why would he need more than one?"There's only one Messiah."
So you are saying God, a being with unlimited power, is limited to only one Messiah?
Isaiah 53:5There is no "OT" claim to crucifixion. The idea of two messianic figures in the future (the son of Joseph and the son of David) is reported in later rabbinic writings as a possible scenario. They are not twins, though, simply two different people performing two different functions.
really? The "Suffering Servant"? That has been deflated time and time again -- the servant is EXPLICITLY equated with Israel repeatedly in Isaiah.Isaiah 53:5
The Suffering Servant
…Surely our griefs He Himself bore, And our sorrows He carried; Yet we ourselves esteemed Him stricken, Smitten of God, and afflicted. But He was pierced through for our transgressions, He was crushed for our iniquities; The chastening for our well-being fell upon Him, And by His scourging we are healed. All of us like sheep have gone astray, Each of us has turned to his own way; But the LORD has caused the iniquity of us all To fall on Him.…
really? The "Suffering Servant"? That has been deflated time and time again -- the servant is EXPLICITLY equated with Israel repeatedly in Isaiah.
Yeah of course it's subltly stated with room for misinterpretation, otherwise how would the prophecy that the Jews would not recognize Jesus be fullfilled?
I was tempted.... really tempted.... to simply put a here, but instead let me lift the words from an almost seven year old post from my friend, Levite.
"Yes, I think we are all familiar with the Christian reading of Isaiah. However, that reading is eisegetic. It's dandy if you're a Christian. But if you're not, it is meaningless.
I have said before, and will say again: Jewish scripture-- all Jewish scripture-- was written by Jews, for Jews, in the Jewish language, for interpretation using Jewish methodologies.
The fact that Christians came along, a thousand years after Isaiah wrote this material for Jews dealing with the Assyrian conquests and the rising threat of Babylonia, and read their own Christian theologies back into the text in order to make Jewish text try to support a profoundly un-Jewish set of ideas, carries no weight in Jewish scholarship.
I can go back, read Shakespeare's Henry V, and decide that when he was speaking of England and France, he actually was talking about the US and Iraq in the twenty-first century, regardless of the fact that he is using language, events, and references specific to his own historical context. But that doesn't make what I say true, or mean that Shakespeare ever had any idea of what might transpire in the twenty-first century.
The simple fact is that the original Hebrew of Isaiah in chapters 51 through 54 (since 53 cannot be read in isolation, being part of a continuous poetic narrative that provides context to the whole) is about all of Israel being redeemed by God's forgiveness, not about a specific messiah. The references to "my servant" are phrased in the poetic Hebrew as a generality. They describe any and all Jews faithful to God, not one specific person. All those torments the "servant" suffers are the indiginities of conquest and persecution all Israel was experiencing during Isaiah's time.
You can read that chapter, as a non-Jew, from after three thousand years, and decide that Isaiah was talking about Jesus and Christianity. But that doesn't make it so, any more than Shakespeare was talking about Iraq."
Why would he need more than one?
Messiah Yeshua son of Joseph, and Son of the Most High, sent to fulfill laying a line of righteousness across Israel, and the whole world; to bring in the lost sheep of Israel, to divorce Judah, and to act as High priest removing that which defiles.Anyone got info on the twin Messiahs