Dingbat
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Hello everyone Tarheeler suggested I bring my questions here and I figured I would ask about clarification of the story of Lot. I do not consider myself a complete dullard but I feel like I am missing something in regard to the narrative of Lot.
For example I do not understand the reasoning of Lot offering up his daughters to be raped while sparing the messengers from God. Many have used this as a claim against homosexuality but that doesn't fly with me because I highly doubt the Lord considers rape a lesser sin than Homosexuality if he even considers it a sin in the first place. The only thing I could come up with is that they were messengers of God but that still doesn't explain Lot offering his daughters to the mob.
I do understand or at least think I do about Lot's wife being killed. If you take it literally it is because she disobeyed God's commandments or if you take it figuratively she was still in the midset of the people of Sodom and Gomorra.
Why do they leave the next town out of fear of the same thing happening? There is no indication of such behavior and it is rather glossed over. All I can assume is there is some tale railing against urbanization and the advent of agriculture.
Finally how is what Lot's daughters do to him which is basically rape any better than what happened in the two destroyed towns? At this point it seems to completely defeat any point the narrative was trying to portray or I am obviously missing it. Any help would be greatly appreciated.
For example I do not understand the reasoning of Lot offering up his daughters to be raped while sparing the messengers from God. Many have used this as a claim against homosexuality but that doesn't fly with me because I highly doubt the Lord considers rape a lesser sin than Homosexuality if he even considers it a sin in the first place. The only thing I could come up with is that they were messengers of God but that still doesn't explain Lot offering his daughters to the mob.
I do understand or at least think I do about Lot's wife being killed. If you take it literally it is because she disobeyed God's commandments or if you take it figuratively she was still in the midset of the people of Sodom and Gomorra.
Why do they leave the next town out of fear of the same thing happening? There is no indication of such behavior and it is rather glossed over. All I can assume is there is some tale railing against urbanization and the advent of agriculture.
Finally how is what Lot's daughters do to him which is basically rape any better than what happened in the two destroyed towns? At this point it seems to completely defeat any point the narrative was trying to portray or I am obviously missing it. Any help would be greatly appreciated.