="james2ko, post: 4388237, member: 25331"]
Once I reconciled all of the passages of a present and future kingdom with all of its aspects by proposing a phased in kingdom, you now seek greater evidence for the proposal. The tactic will eventually lead to the impossible.
There is but one hope of maintaining the purity of Christianity. That can be done only when the principle of the silence of the Scriptures is revered. I asked you to provide Scripture, which specifically said the kingdom would come in phases. You couldn't do it. Instead, you strung numerous verses together to support your doctrine, which is precisely what cults, like the JW's do. I can invent a doctrine and prove it is truth using your methodology. For every true Biblical doctrine, there is clearly stated Scripture, which supports it.
Your impossible request for one verse containing specific aspects of a doctrine is as logical as asking someone to provide one piece of a 1,000 piece puzzle that shows you what the full puzzle will look like when fully put together .
Not impossible at all. If the Bible doesn't clearly state it, then you are walking on very thin ice. You are relying on private interpretation.
2. As soon as you quote a specific one that explains how is it that Jesus is exercising His full authority over this current evil, godless world. As you can see, two can play “moving the goal posts” game.
I will quote not just one, but two.
First, and once again, Jesus was given
ALL authority in heaven and earth.
Jesus said ALL authority (not some) on earth and in heaven has been given to me. Peter wrote that authorities and powers are subjected to Him (1 Peter 3:18-22).
Who do you think these authorities and powers are? When plainly written Scriptures say Jesus has ALL authority on earth and in heaven, and authorities and powers are subjected to Him, you are in direct conflict with the word of God when you say otherwise.
Matthew 28:18
Jesus came and told his disciples,“I have been given all authority in heaven and on earth.
1Peter 3:18-22
For Christ also suffered once for sins, the righteous for the unrighteous, that he might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh but made alive in the spirit, in which he went and proclaimed to the spirits in prison, because they formerly did not obey, when God's patience waited in the days of Noah, while the ark was being prepared, in which a few, that is, eight persons, were brought safely through water. Baptism, which corresponds to this, now saves you, not as a removal of dirt from the body but as an appeal to God for a good conscience, through the resurrection of Jesus Christ, who has gone into heaven and is at the right hand of God, with angels, authorities, and powers having been subjected to him.
1 Cor. 15
27 For the Scriptures say, “God has put all things under his authority.”
You asked for a Scripture that tells how
is it that Jesus is exercising His full authority over this current evil, godless world. Here's how.
Paul contended that it is by the authority of Christ that “all things hold together” (Col. 1:17).
Jesus, is said to “uphold all things by his powerful word” (Heb. 1:3).
Were it not for the sustaining authority of the Son of God, our universe would come apart at the seams! There would be utter chaos.
If Jesus so chose, He could end it all right this second. He could destroy Satan and put an end to death, tossing them both into the lake of fire. Jesus has ALL authority. He can do anything He chooses whenever He wants to.
4. Take a good look at the world around you. Who else is behind the current debauchery ? Satan--the ruler of this present world. I'm sure you won't ask for a specific scripture reference for that one
There is no question Satan is the ruler of the world, but in what sense does Satan "rule" the world? The Bible never teaches that Satan actually rules over the entire world, but that he is ruler over the rebellion against God. The kingdoms of the world are made up of people and systems in rebellion against God, and Satan is allowed to move freely about, convincing people to join him in his rebellion against God.
Remember, all authority comes from God (Romans 14:1). Jesus got His authority from God, but God
NEVER gave Satan authority.
Any authority that Satan exercises was taken, not given.
But there too many scriptures that testify His kingdom will not be exclusively spiritual when he returns .
I see only one second coming written about in the Bible. You claim there are two. Please quote specific Scripture that speaks of two second comings of Christ to earth.
6. Precisely. Christ is living now, yet Every knee is not bowing and every tongue is not acknowledging Him, Hence the kingdom cannot currently be here, as you propose. So logic tells us there must be a phase or part(s) of the kingdom, like its subjects, laws, and territory that have yet to be manifested.
Jesus is King. Christians are His subjects. The New Testament is His law, and the earth is His territory or realm of influence. Each is an aspect of the kingdom, not a phase, and I have given you much Scriptural support that the kingdom is here NOW, and Jesus has been given ALL, not part, authority to rule His kingdom.
Paul says there will be a time when every knee shall bow and every tongue confess. When Jesus came the first time, He was humiliated and rejected. He is still being rejected. When He comes again, people will see Him for who He truly is, King of kings, Lord of lords. It is then every knee will bow and every tongue will confess.
7. It's called logic and inference from many scriptures. Which God requires we exercise when interpreting His word (Isa 1:18; 28:10). How else would the Ninevites and the queen of the south find out about the unbelief of Christ's generation and condemn it, unless they had a period of time to do so?
Yes, logic and inference are both required, but no amount of logic or inference should ever contradict the plain language of Scripture. When logic and inference contradict the plain language of Scripture, bells and whistles should be sounding all over the place.
Poetry and prophesy should not be treated as straightforward narrative. Obscure and ambiguous passages should always be interpreted in the light of plain and obvious clear passages. Let literal passages interpret figurative passages, not vice versa.
8. I can agree with that. A resurrection whether to physical or immortal life is a miracle from God. And He will once again fulfill His purpose by setting aside the natural order for the rest of the dead who will be resurrected back to physical life.
No Scripture teaches a resurrection to "physical life." If you can find plainly written Scripture that says such a thing, post it please.
9. The point I was making was that if Heb 9:27 is taken literally, as you propose, it would contradict scripture. So we must conclude it is a Hebrew idiomatic expression. Similar to one of our modern ones, "you only die once" .
Show me Scripture that contradicts that we only experience ONE physical death.
11. I think you misunderstand or are unaware of the principles in Isa 1:18 and Isa 28:10 . It implies you will not find one verse that specifically states and fully explains one or more aspects of a belief or doctrine.
My friend, let us reason together. I want you to look very closely at this passage and then tell me whether the "once" in verses 26 and 28 means something different than the "once" in verse 28.
Hebrews 9
23 Therefore it was necessary for the copies of the things in the heavens to be cleansed with these, but the heavenly things themselves with better sacrifices than these.
24 For Christ did not enter a holy place made with hands, a
mere copy of the true one, but into heaven itself, now to appear in the presence of God for us;
25 nor was it that He would offer Himself often, as the high priest enters the holy place year by year with blood that is not his own.
26 Otherwise, He would have needed to suffer often since the foundation of the world; but now
once at the consummation of the ages He has been manifested to put away sin by the sacrifice of Himself.
27 And inasmuch as it is appointed for men to die
once and after this
comes judgment,
28 so Christ also, having been offered
once to bear the sins of many, will appear a second time for salvation without
reference to sin, to those who eagerly await Him.
It is appointed for men to die ONCE, SO CHRIST ALSO HAVING BEEN OFFERED ONCE.
Now tell me, when the Hebrew author says Jesus was offered ONCE, am I to believe this is a HEBREW IDIOMATIC EXPRESSION?
Please pray about this.
12. Yes it is plainly written as the very next verse plainly states these people "knew" God:
Rom 1:21 because, although they knew God, they did not glorify Him as God, nor were thankful, but became futile in their thoughts, and their foolish hearts were darkened.
Paul is referring to Christians who knew God, perhaps turning away and or became unbelievers. These are Christians who thought they knew Christ, but Christ said He never knew them! (Mat 7:21-23).
Will write more on Romans 1 in a little bit.
13. I would have to disagree. My entire argument is based on good grammatical, logical, contextual exegesis, which is solidly supported by scripture. I would appreciate if you include the numbers of my points in your reply. It makes for easier reference.
You repeatedly ignore the plain language of Scripture. You let figurative passages interpret literal ones. That is poor exegesis.