Education Requirements For Voting & 15th Amendment

[Neo-Logic]

There's been suggestion that educational requirements should be placed for voting. The logic behind this being that by having more educated people voting, that the decisions would be more "qualified" or "better" and that the "best" decision could then be achieved.

Section 1 of the 15th Amendment states "The right of citizens of the United States to vote shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any state on account of race, color, or previous condition of servitude."

Does the 15th Amendment implicitly prohibit educational requirements on voting? It states, voting shoudn't be hindered on account of race, and color. If we place educational requirements on voting, doesn't the fact that the different races in America have varying levels of affluence and educational competencies make this about race & color?

According to National Assessment of Adult Literacy, a performance test in the following categories of a large and diverse sample yielded whites and asians higher and blacks and hispanics always resulted in lowest scores.

• Prose: Whites had the highest scores followed by Asians/Pacific Islanders, Blacks, and Hispanics
• Document: Whites and Asians/Pacific Islanders had the highest scores followed by Blacks and Hispanics
• Quantitative: Whites had the highest scores followed by Asians/Pacific Islanders, and both Blacks and Hispanics

Also the fact that hispanics and blacks constitute the majority of the lower class families would equate to a weaker foundation for educating their children.

So if we can agree that education level differs on average, with varying races, and also that affluence differs with every race - putting some in disadvantage while others in more advantegeous situations, wouldn't the educational requirements for voting be in violation of the 15th amendment quid pro quo?