Is premarital sex a sin? (moral, translation, sin, bible)

[Captain Civic]

Originally Posted by Draka

Just a question here, but why is it that the newer translations are wrong when it comes to premarital sex, but they are right when it comes to "other things'? I've noticed that words change from translation to translation and it always seems that people will use different versions of the bible to back up their stance. If it says one thing in one version that can't prove your point, then you grab a different version that can.

Do any of you think that eventually you will ever all agree on just what version has the "most truth"? It's easy to see why there are so many different denominations of Christianity when you constantly see the proof that so many can't even agree on what the scriptures you base your faith on actually say.

This seems to be a big blockade within Christianity.

This will probably make me sound old, but the best english version is the KJV, due to the source material it used. The more contemporary versions are written as a type of paraphrasing, so that people who don't know merry ole England writing can get the grasp of what it is to be Christian.

Although I don't like the word 'wrong', it's probably more appropriate to notice that they're closer to synonyms, but a word that is similar doesn't always convey the same meaning.