Jewish Get (America, Jerusalem, Israel, divorce, marriage)

[robtex]

In a Jewish divorce the man can divorce for any reason or no reason at all. The woman, in my understanding, though it is not in this article, must have specific reasons and the rabbi and or husband must approve of those reasons. In addition if the man refuses to divocre her via the get the woman must appeal to the rabbi directly. In america while a Jewish woman can legally get a secular divorce her get can and does get turned down so by Jewish law she is not divoced even though by secular law she is. How do you guys feel about this system?

footnote:

http://www.jewfaq.org/divorce.htm

[jewscout]

hmmmm....
that is actually a problem that has arisen in israel...read an article about it in the Jerusalem Post...women who want to get remarried but their husbands who sill live in the Diaspora won't give them one...
I think if a woman wants a divorce the rule should be changed that the man must give her that divorce if it's on legitimate grounds...

but then i'm not very familiar w/ the exactitudes of jewish divorce laws...

[michel]

Acquiring a Spouse



Mishnah Kiddushin 1:1 specifies that a woman is acquired (i.e., to be a wife) in three ways: through money, a contract, and sexual intercourse. Ordinarily, all three of these conditions are satisfied, although only one is necessary to effect a binding marriage.

Acquisition by money is normally satisfied by the wedding ring. It is important to note that although money is one way of "acquiring" a wife, the woman is not being bought and sold like a piece of property or a slave. This is obvious from the fact that the amount of money involved is nominal (according to the Mishnah, a perutah, a copper coin of the lowest denomination, was sufficient). In addition, if the woman were being purchased like a piece of property, it would be possible for the husband to resell her, and clearly it is not. Rather, the wife's acceptance of the money is a symbolic way of demonstrating her acceptance of the husband, just like acceptance of the contract or the sexual intercourse. To satisfy the requirements of acquisition by money, the ring must belong to the groom. It cannot be borrowed, although it can be a gift from a relative. It must be given to the wife irrevocably. In addition, the ring's value must be known to the wife, so that there can be no claim that the husband deceived her into marrying by misleading her as to its value.

This passage came from the same website that you used Rob; there is to me an unbelievable similarity between the Jewish marriage contract and the english contractual laws. In English Contractual Law, there must be (Aghhh My memory!!! - or, rather, my lack of it) some money exchanged in order for a contract to be effective in law - no matter how small the amount.

[robtex]

Originally Posted by jewscout

but then i'm not very familiar w/ the exactitudes of jewish divorce laws...

lol ask Rachel I bet she is!!

[jewscout]

Originally Posted by robtex

lol ask Rachel I bet she is!!

very funny