contradictions in the bible??? (Jesus, moral, punishment, Moses, Earth)

[uss_bigd]

Originally Posted by Autodidact

You think God forgot how to issue prohibitions? And no, Matthew 19 does not prohibit polygamy, it merely tells how husbands and wives should relate to each other. I think if God had wanted to outlaw something He had formerly permitted, He knew how to say so. In fact Christians continued to practice polygamy for 3 centuries afterward, until Christianity became Romanized, at which point they accepted the Roman model of marriage, which was monogamous. That's why it's not prohibited in the Bible; it was the custom in the Near East at that time.

you are stating your opinion!

If the bible states "two becomes one flesh" and not three or four it states the rule there TEO BECOME ONE. why must we e stubborn and seem greedy with flesh?

[pray4me]

My father said that "become one flesh" referred to having children and so it did not rule out polygamy. On the other hand, a man can only leave his father and mother to cling to his wife once. Mathew 19:5

[uss_bigd]

Originally Posted by pray4me

My father said that "become one flesh" referred to having children and so it did not rule out polygamy. On the other hand, a man can only leave his father and mother to cling to his wife once. Mathew 19:5

thats your opinion... support your claim with scripture.

[Mestemia]

Originally Posted by uss_bigd

thats your opinion... support your claim with scripture.

even if he support his opinion with scripture, it is still his opinion.
Slapping out verses to explain why you hold the opinion you hold does not make your opinion fact.

[pray4me]

I was using logic, it tells a man to leave his father and mother and cling to his wife and the two become one flesh. That's the entire verse which you are quoting. Now I get how a person may say that two becoming one could be referring to children but logic tells us that when a man leaves his father and mother to cling to his wife he's only going to leave them once. Is he to go back and live with his parents again for every wife he marries? Not likely. That's what my statement was. A man does not "Leave his father and mother" multiple times so the verse is most likely speaking of his first wife. The very next verse says "So they are no longer two, but one. Therefore what God has joined together, let man not separate."

The old testament verse Our Savior was quoting was Gen 2:24 "For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and they will become one flesh." This was Adam speaking right after the creation of Eve also before the fruit of the tree was eaten. This was the verse our Savior chose to quote on marriage. If God had intended polygamy why did he make Adam only one woman?

[uss_bigd]

Originally Posted by pray4me

I was using logic, it tells a man to leave his father and mother and cling to his wife and the two become one flesh. That's the entire verse which you are quoting. Now I get how a person may say that two becoming one could be referring to children but logic tells us that when a man leaves his father and mother to cling to his wife he's only going to leave them once. Is he to go back and live with his parents again for every wife he marries? Not likely. That's what my statement was. A man does not "Leave his father and mother" multiple times so the verse is most likely speaking of his first wife. The very next verse says "So they are no longer two, but one. Therefore what God has joined together, let man not separate."

The old testament verse Our Savior was quoting was Gen 2:24 "For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and they will become one flesh." This was Adam speaking right after the creation of Eve also before the fruit of the tree was eaten. This was the verse our Savior chose to quote on marriage. If God had intended polygamy why did he make Adam only one woman?

I guess i dont get the about the children part, but i agree with everything else... Good Job!!

[Jeremy Mason]

Originally Posted by Mestemia

even if he support his opinion with scripture, it is still his opinion.
Slapping out verses to explain why you hold the opinion you hold does not make your opinion fact.

I think what uss_Bigd is asking is since this is a Biblical debate the parameters should be confined to the Bible.

[rocka21]

Originally Posted by Jeremy Mason

I think what uss_Bigd is asking is since this is a Biblical debate the parameters should be confined to the Bible.

Yes, its about two different scriptures that say two different things.

The most famous quoted scriptures are the ones that have no challenge in other gospels.

[Mestemia]

Originally Posted by Jeremy Mason

I think what uss_Bigd is asking is since this is a Biblical debate the parameters should be confined to the Bible.

Then he should take his OFF TOPIC debate to another thread

[Jeremy Mason]

Originally Posted by Mestemia

Then he should take his OFF TOPIC debate to another thread

Ok you have a point.