Biblical Sexual Ethics: Fornication (Torah, Leviticus, divorce, marriage, sex)

[angellous_evangellous]

It is my understanding that pornia in the Greek refers to all forms of deviant sexual behavior. However, we should not define deviant behavior in our culture as the same for the first century.

The norm for sexual expression in the New Testament is heterosexual marriage. In the New Testament, we don't have to worry about the issues of polygamy and concubinage, but we do have to consider that the NT does not address major sexual ethical issues like sex with slaves, pederasty, incest, and sex with children - all of which usually do not threaten heterosexual marriage.

That is, married men could usually and legally have sex with other male slaves, boys, and children was usually anal, oral, or non-penetrative did not constitute adultery in the Greco-Roman context, and married Jewish men could have sex with anyone as well. Therefore, the silent treatment with regard to pederasty and sex with slaves is most alarming in the NT. Legally, marriage is strictly for the securing of a legal heir.

Adultery is very one-sided in the ancient world. The norm was that men could have sex with whomever they wanted to - and children and slaves (both male and female, and their children) were for the most part sexually available - and it was not considered "adultery." This is true for both the Torah and Roman law. There were some regulations and execptions.

One exception is that husbands and wives very often loved eachother and remained faithful to one another sexually, even though the man could usually do what he wanted. Another exception is one marriage contract found in Egypt dated in the second century BCE that contains rather painful stipulations for the man if he had sex with anyone else.

[Sunstone]

Are there many opinions on this? That is, do all scholars pretty much agree, or is there diversity of opinions on the subject of ancient sexual norms?

[angellous_evangellous]

Originally Posted by Sunstone

Are there many opinions on this? That is, do all scholars pretty much agree, or is there diversity of opinions on the subject of ancient sexual norms?

Scholars don't agree on anything. It's our job to disagree.

Just as soon as we think we know something, we find out we need to tweak our knowledge, which is why we will always need scholars. It's a self-perpetuating business.

Anyway, I've known of that single papyrus leaf that legally requires the husband to remain sexually faithful to his wife for a few years - and so have several other folks. It is the only evidence in the Greco-Roman world of a male being sexually monogamous with his wife, as far as I know there is widespread agreement on this.

EDIT: In my opinion, Roman married men most likely had anything but vaginal sex with other people once he was married - any illigitimate children could endanger his estate.

Now we should consider that in the first century, it was pretty easy for a woman to divorce her husband, and sexual promiscuity could cause some serious problems for some men if they angered their wives.

[angellous_evangellous]

Examples which support my argument here are available in Lefkowitz and Fant's sourcebook.

[ChristineES]

I don't think that was true from God's view. King David was punished for sleeping with another's wife. (this is in I Kings)
Part of the Torah says that if a man and woman fornicate, they are bound by the law to be married. ( I can't remember whether this is in Leviticus or not, I hope you can take my word for it).

[angellous_evangellous]

Originally Posted by ChristineES

I don't think that was true from God's view. King David was punished for sleeping with another's wife. (this is in I Kings)
Part of the Torah says that if a man and woman fornicate, they are bound by the law to be married. ( I can't remember whether this is in Leviticus or not, I hope you can take my word for it).

That's a good point, but that wasn't in the first century, which is what the OP addresses.

[angellous_evangellous]

Also please note that the OP addresses only the definition of the word pornea and not how it is used in various contexts in the NT.