All scripture inspired? (Jesus Christ, priests, ritual, reject, Earth)

[MidnightBlue]

Originally Posted by ThisShouldMakeSense

What did Paul mean in 2 Timothy 3:16 when he said ALL scripture is inspired? The rest of the Bible canon was complete and then there is the apocrypha...he also wrote that all scripture is inspired of God, not by God...so what is your understandidng of this verse?

A more complete excerpt:

Now as Jannes and Jambres withstood Moses, so do these also resist the truth: men of corrupt minds, reprobate concerning the faith. But they shall proceed no further: for their folly shall be manifest unto all men, as their's also was. But thou hast fully known my doctrine, manner of life, purpose, faith, longsuffering, charity, patience, persecutions, afflictions, which came unto me at Antioch, at Iconium, at Lystra; what persecutions I endured: but out of them all the Lord delivered me. Yea, and all that will live godly in Christ Jesus shall suffer persecution. But evil men and seducers shall wax worse and worse, deceiving, and being deceived. But continue thou in the things which thou hast learned and hast been assured of, knowing of whom thou hast learned them; and that from a child thou hast known the holy scriptures, which are able to make thee wise unto salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus. All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: that the man of God may be perfect, thoroughly furnished unto all good works.

In other words, you should not be led astray by people who teach things contrary to what I have taught. You know me, you know my way of life, and you know the scriptures, and so you shouldn't be led astray.


Had Paul written 2 Timothy, he would undoubtedly have been referring to the Jewish scriptures -- what Christians call the Old Testament. But it's not likely that Paul wrote it.

"Inspired of God" means the same thing as "inspired by God."