Bible Adulteration ? (Kingdom, Revelation, Jewish, God)

[BM5]

Apoc. 22: versus 18 and 19

No need to type it out since we all have it. The question is " Why was this warning put there in the first place "

Assuming that it is the true word of God, and God does not say or do anything negative or without purpose, it follows that this warning is pointed at those who would not hesitate to tamper with Scripture.

Two examples of change come to mind :

1. Apoc. 16 vs 3: the word "soul" was changed by the Jesuits in 1916 and further published as "thing"

2. " The kingdom of God is within you" : changed to "The kingdom of God is among you"

These two changes are quite significant in meaning.

I do not feel that this is a discussion (argument is more the norm) of which version is the true text ( Douay vs. KJV for example ) since every version should have the same or similiar reading of Apoc.22, 18and 19.

[Francine]

Originally Posted by BM5

Apoc. 22: versus 18 and 19. No need to type it out since we all have it. The question is " Why was this warning put there in the first place "

It's a case of projection. "Methinks he doth protest too much." The book of Revelation itself was a major redaction of a pre-existing Jewish piece of apocalyptic literature. Wrongdoers are the first to suspect wrongdoing.