What does Paul mean at I Corinthians 7:36? (Earth, virgin, translation)

[ThisShouldMakeSense]

I'm staring this thread as a result of another thread.
(King James Version)
36But if any man think that he behaveth himself uncomely toward his virgin, if she pass the flower of her age, and need so require, let him do what he will, he sinneth not: let them marry.


I was told that Paul is here saying that if a couple have had sex before they are married, it is not a sin, provided that they then get married. I disagree with this. i think that he is saying that if a couple can't control themselves, then they should go ahead and get married. bearing in mind the context and other scriptures on the subject.

(I think this translation confims my view:
(Worldwide English (New Testament))
***'And if a man feels that he is doing the right thing for the woman he is to marry, then let him marry her. That is, if she is no longer young, and if he wants her very much. Then he must do as he thinks best. It is not wrong for him to do it.'
However, i know some may say that i'm conviniently choosing a translation that fits my belief. i'm not, just to say that. i'm looking at the bigger picture.)

So i'd like to throw this open. What do you think?

[njcl]

you see its this word UNCOMELY,it changes the whole verse,uncomely means innapropiate which means the man could not contain his desires and de flowered his virgin

[njcl]

UNCOMELY -[adjective] offensive to good taste especially in sexual matters; "an earthy but not indecent story"; "an indecent gesture"

[Jayhawker Soule]

1 Corinthians 7:36-38 refers to a man's handling of his daughter or ward.

[njcl]

thats the catholic slant on the verse except its blasphemy

36But if any man think that he behaveth himself uncomely toward his virgin, if she pass the flower of her age, and need so require, let him do what he will, he sinneth not: let them marry.


so the father marries his own daughter?.................

[michel]

As Mr Emu said, there is no mention of 'daughter' in the KJ version......

7:36 But if any man think that he behaveth himself uncomely toward his virgin, if she pass the flower of her age, and need so require, let him do what he will, he sinneth not: let them marry.
(This evidently is a reference to the virgin's father, who normally determined when, and to whom, his daughter would marry (1 Corinthians 7:38).)

7:37 Nevertheless he that standeth stedfast in his heart, having no necessity, but hath power over his own will, and hath so decreed in his heart that he will keep his virgin, doeth well.

7:38 So then he that giveth her in marriage doeth well; but he that giveth her not in marriage doeth better.

My take on this is that if a man 'lusts' after a woman, and she is old enough to marry, then he should marry her. I am not too sure about 37, but 38 indicates that the father who allows his daughter to marry the man is 'doing the right thing' but if the father does not consent to the wedding, he is acting in a better way than if he consents to the marriage

[Mister Emu]

Well michel,

the NASB translation goes as thus.

36But if any man thinks that he is acting unbecomingly toward his virgin daughter, if she is past her youth, and if it must be so, let him do what he wishes, he does not sin; let her marry.

I now realize it is more speaking of letting the daughter marry someone else though. Still, I do not agree with the translation.

[michel]

But verse 37 confuses me... any ideas ?

[Mister Emu]

Well, I believe it means that you keep your daughter a virgin according to the NASB, not giving her in marriage.

[michel]

Originally Posted by Mister Emu

Well, I believe it means that you keep your daughter a virgin according to the NASB, not giving her in marriage.

Of course you are right *shakes head to engage gears again* - thanks Mr Emu.